A home care nurse instructs the mother of a 5-year-old child with lactose intolerance about dietary measures for her child. The nurse should tell the mother that it is necessary to provide which dietary supplement in the child's diet?

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Question 1 of 9

A home care nurse instructs the mother of a 5-year-old child with lactose intolerance about dietary measures for her child. The nurse should tell the mother that it is necessary to provide which dietary supplement in the child's diet?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In lactose intolerance, the inability to digest lactose, the sugar in dairy products, can lead to calcium deficiency if dairy products are removed from the diet. Calcium is crucial for bone health and other bodily functions, so alternative calcium sources like fortified non-dairy milks or leafy greens must be included to prevent deficiency. While fats and proteins are important nutrients, they are not typically deficient in lactose intolerance. Zinc, although an essential mineral, is not the primary concern in this case.

Question 2 of 9

When caring for an asthmatic patient with an early-phase reaction, which of the following is indicative of an early-phase reaction?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rapid bronchospasms are a symptom of an early-phase reaction in an asthmatic patient. During the early phase, bronchospasms occur due to immediate hypersensitivity reactions. Inflammatory epithelial lesions, increased secretions, and increased mucosal edema are typically seen in late-phase reactions as part of the inflammatory response that occurs later. Therefore, rapid bronchospasms are most indicative of an early-phase reaction.

Question 3 of 9

A 3-year-old child was brought to the pediatric clinic after the sudden onset of findings that include irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, being hot to the touch, sitting leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling, and suprasternal retractions. What should the nurse do first?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct initial action is to notify the healthcare provider of the child's status. The presenting symptoms described, such as irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, being hot to the touch, sitting leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling, and suprasternal retractions, are indicative of epiglottitis, a potentially life-threatening condition. Immediate medical attention is crucial in such cases. While preparing for an X-ray or examining the throat may be necessary, the priority is to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention by the healthcare provider. Collecting a sputum specimen is not relevant in this situation and would cause unnecessary delay. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize communication with the healthcare provider to expedite appropriate management and treatment.

Question 4 of 9

In children suspected to have a diagnosis of diabetes, which one of the following complaints would be most likely to prompt parents to take their school-age child for evaluation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Bedwetting.' One of the initial symptoms of type 1 diabetes in children is bedwetting. Parents are likely to notice bedwetting in a school-age child, prompting them to seek evaluation. Polyphagia (excessive hunger) and weight loss are also common symptoms of diabetes but may not be as readily noticeable to parents compared to bedwetting. Dehydration is a consequence of diabetes rather than an early symptom that would prompt parents for evaluation.

Question 5 of 9

During an intake screening for a patient with hypertension who has been taking ramipril for 4 weeks, which statement made by the patient would be most important for the nurse to pass on to the physician?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is ''I can't get rid of this cough.'' Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent, dry cough as an adverse effect. This symptom can be indicative of bradykinin accumulation caused by ACE inhibitors. It is important for the nurse to inform the physician about this side effect so that a medication change to another class of antihypertensives, such as an ARB, may be considered. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the common adverse effects of ramipril and are not as concerning for a patient on this medication.

Question 6 of 9

The major difference between a grand mal and petit mal seizure is that a person with a grand mal seizure will have _______________ and the person with a petit mal seizure will not.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The major difference between a grand mal and petit mal seizure is the presence or absence of convulsive movements. Grand mal seizures are characterized by convulsive movements, including jerking of limbs and loss of consciousness. In contrast, petit mal seizures, also known as absence seizures, typically involve brief episodes of staring or eye blinking without convulsive movements. Therefore, choice A, 'convulsive movements,' is the correct answer. Choices B, 'sleep apnea,' and D, 'flaccidity,' are incorrect as they are not associated with the characteristics of grand mal or petit mal seizures. Choice C, 'atonic movements,' is also incorrect as petit mal seizures do not involve atonic movements, but rather absence behaviors such as staring spells.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following can cause coup-contrecoup injuries?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Deceleration forces occur when the head is moving and abruptly comes to a stop, such as in a car crash. This sudden deceleration can cause the brain to hit against the skull, resulting in coup-contrecoup injuries. In a coup-contrecoup injury, the brain is damaged on opposite sides due to the initial impact and the rebound effect inside the skull. Rotational forces usually result in diffuse axonal injuries rather than coup-contrecoup injuries. Deformation forces can cause focal brain injuries but not coup-contrecoup injuries. Acceleration forces typically lead to diffuse brain injuries, not coup-contrecoup injuries. Therefore, the correct answer is deceleration forces.

Question 8 of 9

The healthcare provider calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving lactated Ringer's solution. The patient needs to receive 2000mL of Lactated Ringer's over 36 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 15 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare provider set the IV to deliver?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute, we use the formula Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. In this case, Drops Per Minute = (2000mL x 15 drops/mL) / (36 hours x 60 minutes/hour) = 30000 / 2160 = 13.89 (approximately 14). Therefore, the correct answer is 14 drops per minute. Choice A (8), Choice B (10), and Choice D (18) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the drops per minute based on the given information.

Question 9 of 9

The nurse has just admitted a client with severe depression. From which focus should the nurse identify a priority nursing diagnosis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In caring for a client with severe depression, safety is a critical priority. The nurse must address precautions to prevent suicide as part of the care plan. While nutrition, elimination, and activity are important aspects of care, safety takes precedence due to the immediate risk of harm associated with depression. Ensuring the client's safety by implementing measures to prevent self-harm or suicide is the priority intervention. Addressing nutrition, elimination, and activity can follow once the client's safety is assured.

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