NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A clinic nurse interviews a parent who is suspected of abusing her child. Which of the following characteristics is the nurse least likely to find in an abusing parent?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The profile of a parent at risk of abusive behavior includes a tendency to blame the child or others for the injury sustained. Abusers typically blame others, especially their partners, for the mistakes in their lives. This is related to hypersensitivity, but they are not necessarily alike. This occurs because most abusive people don't hold themselves as being accountable for the actions they commit. Instead, they'll try to shift the blame to the person that they have abused and somehow say they "deserved it"? or that they were forced into a corner.
Question 2 of 9
Which laboratory test result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effects of therapy for a 62-year-old female patient with acute pancreatitis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amylase. In acute pancreatitis, amylase levels are typically elevated. Monitoring amylase levels helps assess the effectiveness of therapy in managing the condition. Elevated amylase is a key indicator of pancreatic inflammation. Calcium (Choice A) levels may be affected in pancreatitis, but they are not the primary indicator for evaluating therapy effectiveness. Bilirubin (Choice B) and Potassium (Choice D) levels may also be altered in pancreatitis, but they are not specific markers for monitoring therapy response in acute pancreatitis.
Question 3 of 9
Which assessment finding is of most concern for a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is a palpable abdominal mass. In a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis, a palpable abdominal mass may indicate the presence of a pancreatic abscess, which requires rapid surgical drainage to prevent sepsis. Absent bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness, and left upper quadrant pain are common symptoms in acute pancreatitis but do not necessarily indicate an immediate need for surgical intervention. Therefore, the presence of a palpable abdominal mass is the most concerning finding in this scenario.
Question 4 of 9
A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) due. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low (hypokalemia), which can be concerning in a patient with cirrhosis who is already at risk for electrolyte imbalances. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can help increase the patient's potassium level and correct the hypokalemia. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to administer the spironolactone. Withholding the spironolactone could further lower the potassium level. Furosemide, on the other hand, is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss and worsen hypokalemia; hence, it should be withheld until the nurse discusses the situation with the healthcare provider. While the healthcare provider should be informed about the low potassium value, immediate administration of spironolactone is necessary to address the hypokalemia in this patient population.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with severe Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease is receiving discharge teaching. Which of these statements by the patient indicates a need for more teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is ''I'm going to limit my meals to 2-3 per day to reduce acid secretion.'' This statement indicates a need for more teaching because large meals increase the volume and pressure in the stomach, delaying gastric emptying, and worsening symptoms of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD). The recommended approach is to eat smaller, more frequent meals (4-6 small meals a day) to reduce acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate good understanding of GERD management by highlighting the importance of staying upright after meals, avoiding trigger foods like tea, coffee, and chocolate, and addressing weight management, which are all appropriate strategies to manage GERD symptoms.
Question 6 of 9
Which finding indicates to the nurse that lactulose (Cephulac) is effective for a 72-year-old man who has advanced cirrhosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'The patient is alert and oriented.' In a patient with advanced cirrhosis, lactulose is used to lower ammonia levels and prevent encephalopathy. A patient being alert and oriented indicates that the medication is effective in achieving this goal. While lactulose may help with constipation, the primary purpose in cirrhosis is to reduce ammonia levels, not to address constipation directly. Denying nausea or anorexia is not a specific indicator of lactulose's effectiveness in treating cirrhosis. Bilirubin levels decreasing are not directly related to lactulose's therapeutic effect on cirrhosis.
Question 7 of 9
A 23-year-old has been admitted with acute liver failure. Which assessment data are most important for the nurse to communicate to the healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most critical assessment data for the nurse to communicate to the healthcare provider in a patient with acute liver failure are asterixis and lethargy. These findings are indicative of grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy, which signals a rapid deterioration in the patient's condition, necessitating early transfer to a transplant center. Jaundiced sclera and skin, elevated total bilirubin level, and a liver 3 cm below the costal margin are all typical findings in hepatic failure but do not indicate an immediate need for a change in the therapeutic plan. Therefore, while these findings are relevant and should be reported, they are not as urgent as asterixis and lethargy in a patient with acute liver failure.
Question 8 of 9
While receiving normal saline infusions to treat a GI bleed, the nurse notes that the patient's lower legs have become edematous and auscultates crackles in the lungs. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the saline infusion immediately. The patient is showing signs of fluid volume overload due to rapid fluid replacement, indicated by lower leg edema and lung crackles. Continuing the infusion could worsen the overload and potentially lead to complications. Notifying the physician is important but should come after stopping the infusion to address the immediate issue. Elevating the patient's legs may help with edema but is not the priority in this situation. Continuing the infusion when the patient is already showing signs of fluid overload is contraindicated and can be harmful.
Question 9 of 9
A man is prescribed lithium to treat bipolar disorder. The nurse is most concerned about lithium toxicity when he notices which of these assessment findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is when the patient states he has been having diarrhea every day. Persistent diarrhea can lead to dehydration, which can increase the risk of lithium toxicity. The other options, such as a manic episode, severe depression, or rash and pruritus, are not directly associated with an increased risk of lithium toxicity.