NCLEX-RN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with bipolar disorder asks the nurse, "Why did I get this illness? I don't want to be sick."? The nurse would best respond with:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is, 'We don't fully understand the cause, but mental illnesses do seem to run in the family.' Current research suggests that while genetics play a role in the development of mental illnesses like bipolar disorder, it is not the sole factor. Environmental influences, life experiences, and other non-genetic factors also contribute significantly to the manifestation of mental disorders. Choices A, B, and C provide incorrect information that is not supported by current research. Traumatic childhood experiences, contracting a virus during childhood, and an overactive immune system are not established causes of bipolar disorder or mental illnesses in general.
Question 3 of 9
The OR nursing staff are preparing a client for a surgical procedure. The anesthesiologist has given the client medications, and the client has entered the induction stage of anesthesia. The nursing staff can expect which of the following symptoms and activities from the client during this time?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During the induction stage of anesthesia, the client may exhibit symptoms like euphoria, drowsiness, or dizziness. This stage occurs after the administration of medications by the anesthesiologist and ends when the client loses consciousness. Choice A is incorrect as irregular breathing patterns are not typically associated with the induction stage. Choice B is incorrect as minimal heartbeat and dilated pupils are not commonly observed during this stage. Choice C is incorrect as relaxed muscles, regular breathing, and constricted pupils are not indicative of the induction stage of anesthesia.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following conditions increases a client's risk of aspiration of stomach contents?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A client in restraints is at an increased risk of aspiration of stomach contents. When a client is restrained, they may be unable to effectively move or turn their body if they begin to vomit, which can lead to aspiration. This lack of mobility can hinder their ability to protect their airway. On the other hand, a scaphoid abdomen, which is sunken or hollowed, is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Additionally, lying prone, facing downward, does not necessarily increase the risk of aspiration, as aspiration is more likely when lying supine (facing upward). Therefore, the correct answer is that a client is in restraints.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following conditions may warrant a serum creatinine level?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A serum creatinine level may be warranted in conditions that can affect renal function or cause muscle breakdown. Rhabdomyolysis, characterized by muscle injury and breakdown, can lead to elevated creatinine levels due to the release of creatinine from muscles. Digitalis toxicity can impair renal function, leading to a need for monitoring creatinine levels. Glomerulonephritis, an inflammatory condition affecting the kidney's filtering units, can also impact renal function and require assessment of creatinine levels. Therefore, all the provided conditions may warrant a serum creatinine level to assess renal function and muscle breakdown.
Question 6 of 9
A client with adrenal insufficiency has a potassium level of 7.2 mEq/L. Which of the following signs or symptoms might the client exhibit with this result?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability. Muscle spasms (Choice B) are more commonly associated with hypocalcemia. Constipation (Choice C) is not a typical sign of hyperkalemia. A prominent U wave on the ECG (Choice D) is associated with hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia.
Question 7 of 9
A client is preparing to undergo a cystoscopy for stones. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the procedure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I will probably see a little blood when I urinate.' During a cystoscopy, a scope is inserted into the client's bladder to inspect structures or remove objects like stones. This procedure is usually performed under local or general anesthesia. It is common for clients to experience a small amount of blood in their urine (hematuria) or have pink-colored urine after the procedure. The other choices are incorrect because drinking a lot of fluid before the test, staying in the hospital for 3 days, and assuming no pain will be experienced are not accurate statements related to a cystoscopy procedure.
Question 8 of 9
Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to maintain the patency of a client's nasogastric tube?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to irrigate the tube as per physician's order. A client with a nasogastric tube is at risk of the tube kinking or clotting off, which can lead to complications such as abdominal distention or vomiting. To ensure the patency of the tube, the nurse should follow the physician's orders and facility policy to irrigate the tube with water or a solution as needed. Maintaining a constant connection to low-intermittent suction (Choice A) is not typically done to maintain tube patency. Suctioning the mouth and nose every shift (Choice C) is not directly related to maintaining nasogastric tube patency. Performing a daily fecal occult blood sample (Choice D) is unrelated to maintaining the patency of a nasogastric tube.
Question 9 of 9
A client is preparing to give a stool sample for occult blood. All of the following information is part of teaching for this client EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When preparing to give a stool sample for occult blood testing, clients need specific instructions to ensure accurate results. It is crucial to educate clients to avoid eating red meat for at least 3 days before the test, as the blood in the meat can interfere with the test results. Clients should be informed that the stool does not need to be kept in a container with preservative as it is not required for this type of testing. Additionally, clients should be aware that a small part of the stool from two areas will be tested using a smear. However, collecting the stool sample from the toilet after having a bowel movement is not recommended as it may introduce contaminants and affect the accuracy of the test. Therefore, this information is not part of the correct teaching for the client preparing to give a stool sample for occult blood.