NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 3-year-old had a hip spica cast applied 2 hours ago. In order to facilitate drying, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After a hip spica cast is applied, it is important to facilitate drying by exposing the cast to air and turning the child frequently, approximately every 2 hours. This helps ensure even drying and prevents skin breakdown. Using a heat lamp can cause burns and should be avoided. Handling the cast with the abductor bar is not necessary for the drying process and may cause discomfort to the child. Turning the child as little as possible is not recommended as regular turning helps prevent complications like pressure ulcers and stiffness.
Question 2 of 9
Which finding indicates to the nurse that lactulose (Cephulac) is effective for a 72-year-old man who has advanced cirrhosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'The patient is alert and oriented.' In a patient with advanced cirrhosis, lactulose is used to lower ammonia levels and prevent encephalopathy. A patient being alert and oriented indicates that the medication is effective in achieving this goal. While lactulose may help with constipation, the primary purpose in cirrhosis is to reduce ammonia levels, not to address constipation directly. Denying nausea or anorexia is not a specific indicator of lactulose's effectiveness in treating cirrhosis. Bilirubin levels decreasing are not directly related to lactulose's therapeutic effect on cirrhosis.
Question 3 of 9
A client with asthma has low-pitched wheezes present in the final half of exhalation. One hour later, the client has high-pitched wheezes extending throughout exhalation. This change in assessment indicates to the nurse that the client:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The change from low-pitched wheezes to high-pitched wheezes indicates a shift from larger to smaller airway obstruction, suggesting increased narrowing of the airways. This change signifies a progression or worsening of the airway obstruction. The absence of evidence of secretions does not support the need for suctioning. Hyperventilation is characterized by rapid and deep breathing, which is not indicated by the information provided in the question.
Question 4 of 9
The healthcare professional in the Emergency Room is treating a patient suspected to have a Peptic Ulcer. On assessing lab results, the healthcare professional finds that the patient's blood pressure is 95/60, pulse is 110 beats per minute, and the patient reports epigastric pain. What is the PRIORITY intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority intervention in this scenario is to start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm. The patient's low blood pressure (95/60) and elevated pulse rate (110 beats per minute) indicate a potential hemorrhage, requiring immediate fluid resuscitation. Starting a large-bore IV will allow for rapid administration of fluids to stabilize the patient's condition. Asking for a stool sample, preparing to insert an NG tube, or administering morphine sulfate should not take precedence over addressing the hemodynamic instability and potential hemorrhage observed in the patient. These actions may be considered later in the patient's care, but the primary focus should be on addressing the critical issue of fluid replacement and stabilization.
Question 5 of 9
A 30-year-old man is being admitted to the hospital for elective knee surgery. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Liver edge 3 cm below the costal margin.' Normally, the lower border of the liver is not palpable below the ribs, so this finding suggests hepatomegaly, which could indicate an underlying health issue. Tympany on percussion of the abdomen, bowel sounds of 20/minute in each quadrant, and aortic pulsations visible in the epigastric area are all within normal limits for a physical assessment and do not require immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is planning care for a 48-year-old woman with acute severe pancreatitis. The highest priority patient outcome is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In acute severe pancreatitis, there is a risk of respiratory failure as a complication, making the maintenance of normal respiratory function the priority outcome. This patient may develop respiratory issues due to the inflammatory process affecting the diaphragm. While pain control, absence of ongoing pancreatic disease, and fluid/electrolyte balance are crucial, they are secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation to prevent respiratory compromise.
Question 7 of 9
A 53-year-old patient is being treated for bleeding esophageal varices with balloon tamponade. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct nursing action for a patient with balloon tamponade for bleeding esophageal varices is to monitor the patient for shortness of breath. The most common complication of balloon tamponade is aspiration pneumonia. Additionally, if the gastric balloon ruptures, the esophageal balloon may slip upward and occlude the airway. Instructing the patient to cough every hour is incorrect as coughing increases the pressure on the varices and raises the risk of bleeding. Verifying the position of the balloon every 4 hours is unnecessary as it is typically done after insertion. Deflating the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea is incorrect because deflating it may cause the esophageal balloon to occlude the airway, leading to complications. Therefore, monitoring for signs of respiratory distress is crucial in this situation.
Question 8 of 9
Administration of hepatitis B vaccine to a healthy 18-year-old patient has been effective when a specimen of the patient's blood reveals
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'anti-HBs'. The presence of surface antibody to HBV (anti-HBs) indicates a successful response to the hepatitis B vaccine. Anti-HBs is a marker of immunity and protection against hepatitis B infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) HBsAg indicates current infection with hepatitis B virus, C) anti-HBc IgG suggests past infection or immunity, and D) anti-HBc IgM is a marker of acute hepatitis B infection.
Question 9 of 9
A client is seen for testing to rule out Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. Which of the following signs or symptoms is associated with this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and rash.' Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSP) is caused by the R. rickettsii pathogen, which damages blood vessels. Patients with RMSP typically present with fever, edema, and a rash that initially appears on the hands and feet before spreading across the body. The disease manifests following a tick bite. Choice A is correct as fever and rash are key indicators of RMSP. Circumoral cyanosis (choice B) is not typically associated with RMSP; it refers to a bluish discoloration around the mouth and is more indicative of oxygen deprivation. Elevated glucose levels (choice C) are not specific signs of RMSP. Therefore, choice D, 'All of the above,' is incorrect since only choice A, 'Fever and rash,' is associated with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.