NCLEX-RN
Saunders NCLEX RN Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is an example of whistle-blowing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Whistle-blowing involves notifying administration or a supervisor about unethical or illegal activities. In this scenario, the nurse reporting a colleague taking supplies for personal use is an example of whistle-blowing as it involves reporting behavior that is dishonest and potentially harmful. Choices B, C, and D do not represent whistle-blowing. Choice B involves a legal action by a client against a nurse, choice C is a situation where immediate care is provided, and choice D is a case of neglect that should have been prevented.
Question 2 of 9
According to HIPAA, which of the following is considered an individual right for privacy of a client's protected health information?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: According to HIPAA, individuals receiving care at healthcare facilities have rights surrounding their protected health information. One of these rights is to receive a copy of the organization's privacy practices, which outlines how their health information will be used and protected. This ensures transparency and allows individuals to understand how their information is handled. The other choices are incorrect because while individuals have the right to access their health information, receive explanations of how it is used, and ensure its confidentiality, receiving medical bills or changing personal health information are not specifically outlined as rights related to the privacy of protected health information.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is assessing an infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip. Which finding would the nurse anticipate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Unequal leg length.' Shortening of a leg is a common sign of developmental dysplasia of the hip. Limited adduction (Choice B) may be present but is less specific to developmental dysplasia of the hip. Diminished femoral pulses (Choice C) are not typically associated with developmental dysplasia of the hip. Symmetrical gluteal folds (Choice D) are a normal finding and would not be expected in a patient with developmental dysplasia of the hip.
Question 4 of 9
Mr. W has orders for a physical therapy consult. The nurse contacts the appropriate department but 12 hours later, no one has come to see the client. Which is the most appropriate action of the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to contact the physical therapy department again and repeat the order. It is crucial to ensure that the client receives the necessary care as prescribed. Following up with the department reinforces the importance of the order and increases the likelihood of prompt action. Option A is incorrect because escalating the situation to filing a complaint should be a last resort after all other communication attempts have failed. Option B is not the best course of action as the first step should be to ensure proper communication within the healthcare team. Option C is not the priority in this scenario, as the immediate concern is to address the delay in the physical therapy consult.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is caring for a dying client whose family wants to be with him in the operating suite. The surgeon, however, does not allow families to be present during surgery. The nurse recognizes this as an ethical dilemma. What is the initial step of the nurse when managing this situation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this type of situation, the first action of the nurse should be to address the immediate needs of the client by requesting the physician to make a change based on the circumstances. The primary concern is to ensure the client's well-being and honor the family's wishes, even if it means deviating from standard protocols. While documentation (Choice B) and consulting with higher authorities like the medical ethics committee (Choice C) may be necessary at a later stage, the initial step is to take action to meet the client's needs promptly. Speaking with the chief nursing officer to change the policy (Choice D) is not the most immediate or practical step in this situation, as the focus should be on the client's current care needs.
Question 6 of 9
Which example best describes the concept of beneficence?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Beneficence is the ethical principle of doing good and acting in the best interest of the client. Providing pain relief to a client in the recovery room who is experiencing pain aligns with beneficence as it promotes the client's well-being and comfort. Choice B is related to autonomy, where the client's wishes regarding treatment are respected. Choice C involves confidentiality and the client's right to privacy. Choice D represents nonmaleficence, as withholding pain medication from a client in pain could cause harm and goes against the principle of doing no harm.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is first-generation antipsychotic drugs. These drugs are potent antagonists of D2, D3, and D4 receptors, making them effective in treating target symptoms but also leading to numerous extrapyramidal side effects due to the blockade of D2 receptors. Atypical or second-generation antipsychotic drugs, as mentioned in choice A, are relatively weak D2 blockers, which results in a lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs, as in choice C, and dopamine system stabilizers, as in choice D, are not typically associated with significant extrapyramidal effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics.
Question 8 of 9
A client is admitted with the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. While taking a history, the client tells the nurse he was admitted for the same thing twice before, the last time just 3 months ago. The nurse would anticipate the healthcare provider ordering:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the case of a client with a history of recurrent pulmonary embolism or contraindications to heparin, vena caval interruption may be necessary. Vena caval interruption involves placing a filter device in the inferior vena cava to prevent clots from traveling to the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary embolectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a clot from the pulmonary artery, which is usually considered in severe or life-threatening cases. Increasing coumadin therapy to achieve a higher INR may be an option but vena caval interruption would be more appropriate in this scenario. Thrombolytic therapy is used in acute cases of pulmonary embolism to dissolve the clot rapidly, but in a recurrent case with contraindications to anticoagulants, vena caval interruption would be a preferred intervention.
Question 9 of 9
At the beginning of her shift in a long-term care facility, which of the following clients should a nurse check on first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When prioritizing care in a long-term care facility, the nurse must consider tasks that require their immediate attention and cannot be delegated. Administering IV antibiotics is a critical nursing task that only the nurse can perform, ensuring the timely and correct delivery of medication to the patient. While assisting with breakfast, managing incontinence, and providing an ice pack are important, these tasks can be delegated to other healthcare team members, allowing the nurse to address the client needing IV antibiotics first to ensure effective treatment and patient safety.