Urinary catheterization is prescribed for a postoperative female client who has been unable to void for 8 hours. The nurse inserts the catheter, but no urine is seen in the tubing. What should the nurse do next?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When no urine is seen in the tubing after inserting a catheter in a female client who has not voided for 8 hours, it is possible that the catheter is in the vagina rather than the bladder. Leaving the initial catheter in place can help locate the meatus for the second attempt. The client should have at least 240 mL of urine output after 8 hours, indicating the need for catheterization. Clamping the catheter (Option A) does not address the issue of incorrect catheter placement. Pulling the catheter back and redirecting it (Option B) is not effective unless the catheter is completely removed, requiring a new catheter. There is no indication of a urinary tract obstruction to notify the healthcare provider (Option D) as the catheter could be inserted easily.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Opioids are a type of drug classified as narcotics. Nurses working with clients with substance abuse issues often encounter opioids. Opioids have the potential for addiction. Examples of opioids include methadone, codeine, morphine, and hydromorphone. Mescaline (Choice A) is a hallucinogen, not an opioid. Diazepam (Choice B) is a benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety and other conditions, not an opioid. Phenobarbital (Choice C) is a barbiturate used to treat seizures and insomnia, not an opioid.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Group therapy is a valuable approach in mental health treatment. Working with psychiatric clients in a group setting offers various benefits. Clients in a group setting can learn from others when their behaviors are inappropriate in a safe and trusting environment. This environment allows individuals to express thoughts and feelings without fear of judgment or criticism, fostering a supportive atmosphere. Through interactions with peers, clients can gain insight into their own behaviors and learn alternative ways of coping. Choice A is incorrect as the presence and support of a nurse are typically important in group therapy sessions. Choice B is incorrect as group settings provide structure and rules to ensure a safe space for clients to express themselves. Choice C is incorrect as maintaining confidentiality is crucial in group therapy to build trust and encourage open sharing.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Intimate partner violence is a serious issue encompassing physical, psychological, or sexual abuse within an intimate relationship. Individuals who have experienced psychological abuse in their upbringing are at a higher risk of becoming victims themselves due to the normalization of abusive behaviors. While factors such as age, mental health conditions, and social support can contribute to vulnerability, growing up in an abusive environment can significantly heighten the risk of intimate partner violence. The other options, such as recent divorce (A), unemployment (B), and schizophrenia diagnosis (D), do not directly correlate with the same level of increased risk associated with a history of psychological abuse.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Barbiturates cause central nervous system (CNS) depression, increasing the risk of falls. Therefore, the nurse should assist the client to the bathroom to ensure safety. Using a bedpan is not necessary if the client can safely walk to the bathroom. Asking about bowel movements or voiding, as in option C, is irrelevant to the immediate safety concern of assisting the client to the bathroom. Assessing the client's bladder, as in option D, is unnecessary in this situation as there is no indication that the client cannot communicate his or her needs effectively. The priority here is to prevent falls and ensure the client's safety while assisting to the bathroom.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: As individuals age, they face various developmental tasks unique to that stage of life. For a 68-year-old client, dealing with the loss of friends becomes a significant aspect of their development. This age group often experiences the passing of peers and friends, leading to feelings of loneliness and the need to adjust to a changing social circle. Commitment to parenthood (Choice B) is more relevant to younger adults in their child-rearing years. Setting career goals (Choice C) is typically associated with early to mid-career stages rather than later in life. Solidification of sense of self (Choice D) is a task that is more commonly associated with earlier adulthood when individuals are establishing their identity. Therefore, the most appropriate developmental task for a 68-year-old client is dealing with the loss of friends.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for the client in this scenario is to provide interactions to help the client learn to trust staff. This approach focuses on building trust and establishing a therapeutic alliance between the client and the healthcare team. Choice A is incorrect because simply convincing the client that the hospital staff is trying to help may not address the underlying issue of trust. Choice B is not the priority at this stage as the client is exhibiting symptoms of paranoia and discomfort. Choice D may further isolate the client and hinder the therapeutic relationship. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to engage in interactions that promote trust and a therapeutic connection between the client and the staff.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Solutions labeled as opened within 24 hours may be used for clean procedures, but only newly opened solutions are considered sterile. This solution is not newly opened and is out of date, so it should be discarded. Options B and C are incorrect as they involve using the expired solution. Option A is incorrect as reusing the solution after it has been opened for more than 24 hours poses a risk of contamination. Therefore, the best course of action is to discard the expired solution and obtain a new unopened bottle for sterile wound care.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.