The nurse is preparing to administer 10 mL of liquid potassium chloride through a feeding tube, followed by 10 mL of liquid acetaminophen. Which action should the nurse include in this procedure?

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Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

The nurse is preparing to administer 10 mL of liquid potassium chloride through a feeding tube, followed by 10 mL of liquid acetaminophen. Which action should the nurse include in this procedure?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Water should be instilled into the feeding tube between administering the two medications to maintain the patency of the feeding tube and ensure that the total dose of medication enters the stomach and does not remain in the tube. These liquid medications do not need to be diluted when administered via a feeding tube. Mixing the medications in one syringe can lead to interactions or alterations in the medications' properties. Withdrawing any fluid from the tube before instilling each medication can cause inaccurate dosing and incomplete administration. Therefore, the correct action is to administer water between the doses of the two liquid medications to ensure proper delivery and avoid any complications.

Question 2 of 9

The client finds a client crying behind a locked bathroom door. The client will not open the door. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The nurse's first concern should be for the client's safety, so an immediate assessment of the client's situation is needed. Option D is the correct choice as it involves directly addressing the client's emotional state and attempting to understand the reason for the distress. In a vulnerable situation like this, the nurse should take the lead in assessing and communicating with the client. Option A is incorrect as it would delegate the responsibility to someone else when the nurse should be the one to initiate the assessment. Option B is inappropriate as it does not actively address the client's emotional needs or safety. Option C is also incorrect because leaving the client alone without further assessment could potentially endanger the client's well-being.

Question 3 of 9

The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. Which action should the nurse take next?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to document that the client responds to the painful stimulus. In this scenario, the client has shown a purposeful response to pain by wincing and pulling away, which should be accurately documented. Verbal stimulation assessment typically follows the assessment of responses to painful stimuli. Placing the client on seizure precautions is not warranted based solely on the observed response to a painful stimulus. Decorticate posturing, which involves abnormal flexion movements, is not demonstrated by the client in this case, making it unnecessary to report to the provider.

Question 4 of 9

The nurse assesses a 2-year-old who is admitted for dehydration and finds that the peripheral IV rate by gravity has slowed, even though the venous access site is healthy. What should the nurse do next?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When encountering a slowed peripheral IV rate, the nurse should initially check for common factors affecting infusion rates. Factors such as the height of the IV bag, presence of kinks in the tubing, needle size or position, client blood pressure, fluid viscosity, and infiltration can impact the rate. It is crucial to ensure the tubing is free of any kinks and that the IV pole is at an appropriate height to facilitate proper flow by gravity. Applying warmth proximal to the site might help with venospasm, but this intervention should come after ensuring proper tubing flow. Adjusting the tape that stabilizes the needle or flushing with normal saline may be necessary later in the troubleshooting process, but these actions should follow checking for kinks and adjusting the IV pole height, which are less invasive interventions.

Question 5 of 9

The nurse is administering the 0900 medications to a client who was admitted during the night. Which client statement indicates that the nurse should further assess the medication order?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The client stating, 'This is a new pill I have never taken before,' is the correct answer as it indicates a potential discrepancy in the medication order. This statement requires further assessment to ensure the medication is correct, verify if it is a new prescription or a different manufacturer, and determine if the client needs additional instructions. While the timing of medication administration (option A) is important, it may not be as critical as ensuring the accuracy of the medication being administered. Option B, regarding the cost of pills, is relevant for discharge planning but does not directly impact the immediate administration of the medication. Option C, expressing tiredness from taking pills daily, may warrant discussion on adherence or side effects but does not raise immediate concerns about the specific medication being administered.

Question 6 of 9

After informing an older client that an IV line needs to be inserted, the client becomes very apprehensive, loudly verbalizing a dislike for all healthcare providers and nurses. How should the nurse respond?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should respond with a calm demeanor to help reduce the client's apprehension. By calmly reassuring the client that the discomfort from the procedure will be temporary, the nurse acknowledges the client's feelings and provides comfort. This response shows empathy and understanding, which can help build trust. Asking the client to remain quiet may escalate the situation and not address the client's underlying concerns. Concentrating solely on completing the insertion efficiently may overlook the client's emotional needs and may increase their anxiety. Telling a joke may not be appropriate in this serious situation and could be perceived as insensitive, failing to address the client's emotional distress effectively.

Question 7 of 9

A community hospital is opening a mental health services department. Which document should the nurse use to develop the unit's nursing guidelines?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct document the nurse should use to develop the unit's nursing guidelines for the mental health services department is ANA's Scope and Standards of Nursing Practice. This document specifically outlines the philosophy and standards of nursing practice, including psychiatric nursing. Option A, the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, and option D, the Patient's Bill of Rights of 1990, focus on client rights and legal protections rather than nursing practice guidelines. Option B, the ANA Code of Ethics with Interpretive Statements, provides ethical guidelines for nursing practice but does not specifically address the development of nursing guidelines for a mental health services department.

Question 8 of 9

The healthcare provider is aware that malnutrition is a common problem among clients served by a community health clinic for the homeless. Which laboratory value is the most reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Long-term protein deficiency significantly lowers serum albumin levels. Albumin, derived from protein breakdown, is produced by the liver when adequate amino acids are available. Due to its long half-life, acute protein loss minimally affects serum albumin levels. In contrast, serum transferrin, with a shorter half-life of 8 to 10 days, decreases with acute protein deficiency and is not a reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition. Elevated hemoglobin levels may occur in conditions like dehydration or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, making it an unreliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition. High cholesterol levels are not directly linked to protein malnutrition and do not serve as a reliable indicator. Therefore, the most reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition among the options provided is a low serum albumin level.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following mental health situations is considered a psychiatric emergency?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A major depressive episode with psychotic features is considered a psychiatric emergency because it poses a significant risk to the individual's safety. Psychotic features in depression can include hallucinations, delusions, or other severe symptoms that require immediate intervention. While Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) and depression with melancholic features are serious conditions, they do not inherently represent an acute emergency that necessitates immediate hospitalization. Bipolar depression, although severe, does not inherently involve psychotic symptoms that would classify it as a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate intervention. It's crucial to recognize the urgency and severity of major depressive episodes with psychotic features to ensure appropriate and timely treatment.

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