NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram Questions
Question 1 of 9
A mother brings her 26-month-old to the well-child clinic. She expresses frustration and anger due to her child's constant saying 'no' and refusal to follow her directions. The nurse explains this is normal for his age, as negativism is attempting to meet which developmental need?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In Erikson's theory of development, toddlers struggle to assert independence. They often use the word 'no' even when they mean yes. This stage is called autonomy versus shame and doubt. The child's behavior of saying 'no' and resisting directions reflects the developmental need for independence, not trust (option A), initiative (option B), or self-esteem (option D). Trust is typically associated with early infancy, initiative with preschool age, and self-esteem with later childhood and adolescence.
Question 2 of 9
While working with an obese adolescent, it is important for the nurse to recognize that obesity in adolescents is most often associated with what other behavior?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When addressing obesity in adolescents, it is crucial to consider that poor body image is a common behavior associated with obesity. As adolescents gain weight, they may experience a decrease in self-esteem and a negative perception of their body. This can contribute to a cycle of unhealthy behaviors and impact their overall well-being. The other choices are less commonly associated with obesity in adolescents. Sexual promiscuity may be influenced by various factors unrelated to obesity, dropping out of school is more often linked to academic challenges or social issues, and drug experimentation can stem from a range of influences but is not directly correlated with obesity.
Question 3 of 9
The healthcare provider is educating a parent about side effects of routine immunizations. Which of the following must be reported immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A temperature of 102.5°F or higher following immunization is considered an adverse reaction and should be reported immediately. This could indicate a more serious systemic response to the vaccine. Irritability, slight edema at the injection site, and local tenderness are common, mild side effects of routine immunizations and do not typically require immediate reporting. Other reactions that should be reported immediately include excessive crying for more than 3 hours, seizure activity, and the presence of tender, swollen, or reddened areas at the injection site.
Question 4 of 9
While caring for the client during the first hour after delivery, the nurse determines that the uterus is boggy and there is vaginal bleeding. What should be the nurse's first action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Massage the fundus. The nurse's first action should be to massage the fundus until it is firm as uterine atony is the primary cause of bleeding in the first hour after delivery. Checking vital signs, offering a bedpan, or checking for perineal lacerations are important assessments but addressing the boggy uterus and vaginal bleeding due to uterine atony takes precedence in this situation.
Question 5 of 9
Following mitral valve replacement surgery, a client develops PVCs. The healthcare provider orders a bolus of Lidocaine followed by a continuous Lidocaine infusion at a rate of 2 mg/minute. The IV solution contains 2 grams of Lidocaine in 500 mL of D5W. The infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops/mL. What rate would deliver 4 mg of Lidocaine per minute?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the rate needed to deliver 4 mg/minute of Lidocaine, first, convert 2 grams to milligrams: 2 grams = 2000 mg. Then, set up a ratio between the total amount of Lidocaine (2000 mg) and the total volume of IV solution (500 mL): 2000 mg / 500 mL = 4 mg / x mL. Solving for x, x = 1 mL. Since the infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops per mL, multiplying by 60 microdrops/mL gives the correct rate of 60 microdrops/minute. This rate ensures the desired 4 mg of Lidocaine is delivered per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
Question 6 of 9
Which oxygen delivery system would provide the highest concentrations of oxygen to the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is the non-rebreather mask. This oxygen delivery system has a one-way valve that prevents exhaled air from entering the reservoir bag and one or more valves covering the air holes on the face mask itself to prevent the inhalation of room air but allow exhalation of air. When a tight seal is achieved around the mask, up to 100% of oxygen is available. Choice A, the Venturi mask, delivers precise oxygen concentrations but not as high as the non-rebreather mask. Choice B, the partial rebreather mask, allows the client to rebreathe some exhaled air, resulting in lower oxygen concentrations than the non-rebreather mask. Choice D, the simple face mask, delivers low to moderate oxygen concentrations and is not designed to provide the highest concentrations like the non-rebreather mask.
Question 7 of 9
A couple asks the nurse about risks of several birth control methods. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that oral contraceptives should not be used by smokers. The use of oral contraceptives in a woman who smokes increases the risk of cardiovascular problems, such as thromboembolic disorders. This is due to the combined effect of smoking and hormonal contraceptives. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific risk associated with smoking and oral contraceptives. Norplant's safety and ease of removal, Depo-Provera's convenience with few side effects, and the IUD's protection against pregnancy and infection are important points but not directly related to the increased risks for smokers using oral contraceptives.
Question 8 of 9
What nursing intervention demonstrates that the nurse understands the priority nursing diagnosis when caring for oral cancer patients with extensive tumor involvement and/or a high amount of secretions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to suction as needed and elevate the head of the bed. This intervention is crucial for managing Ineffective Airway Clearance, which is the priority nursing diagnosis in oral cancer patients with extensive tumor involvement and/or a high amount of secretions. Suctioning helps clear secretions that may obstruct the airway, while elevating the head of the bed promotes optimal respiratory function. Providing oral care every 2 hours may be important for overall oral health but is not directly related to addressing the priority diagnosis. Listening for bowel sounds every 4 hours is more relevant to gastrointestinal assessment and not specific to managing airway clearance issues in oral cancer patients.
Question 9 of 9
A client is scheduled for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP). In order to prepare the client for this test, the nurse would:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination is the correct action. Bowel prep is crucial for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) as it helps in achieving better visualization of the bladder and ureters. Instructing the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination (Choice A) is not the appropriate preparation for an IVP. Restricting the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination (Choice B) is not necessary for this test. Informing the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary (Choice D) is not relevant to the preparation process for an IVP.