HESI RN
HESI RN D441 Pharmacology 0A1 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has been prescribed gabapentin 300 mg by mouth (PO) three times a day for postherpetic neuralgia. Which symptom should the nurse tell the client to report to the healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rapid weight gain may indicate fluid retention or other serious complications with gabapentin use, requiring urgent evaluation. This symptom is more critical to report than photosensitivity, gastric irritation, or sexual dysfunction, which are less severe or less commonly associated.
Question 2 of 5
A male client is admitted for observation because he is reporting progressively increasing fatigue over the past month and a brief episode of dizziness that occurred today. He has a history of heartburn and indigestion that he self-treats with ibuprofen and antacids. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A positive guaiac test indicates gastrointestinal bleeding, likely related to ibuprofen use, which can cause fatigue and dizziness due to anemia. This finding requires immediate reporting to address potential bleeding and prevent further complications.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is reviewing the client's laboratory values. Which serum laboratory value indicates to the nurse that a prescription for atorvastatin is having the desired effect for a client at risk for coronary artery disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Atorvastatin lowers LDL cholesterol, a key risk factor for coronary artery disease. A decrease in LDL levels indicates the medication is effectively reducing cardiovascular risk, making it the primary indicator of therapeutic success.
Question 4 of 5
Which nursing intervention has priority when initiating a continuous epidural infusion with an opioid analgesic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Opioid analgesics via epidural infusion can cause respiratory depression, a life-threatening risk. Applying a pulse oximeter to monitor oxygen saturation is the priority to detect early signs of respiratory compromise, ensuring client safety over other interventions.
Question 5 of 5
A male client receives a scopolamine transdermal patch 2 hours before surgery. Four hours after surgery, the client tells the nurse that he is experiencing pain and asks why the patch is not working. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Scopolamine is used to prevent nausea, not pain. The nurse should clarify this to manage the client’s expectations and address pain with appropriate analgesics.