HESI RN
Nightdale College HESI Pharmacology RN Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse initiates an infusion of piperacillin-tazobactam for a client with a urinary tract infection. Five minutes into the infusion, the client reports not feeling well. Which client manifestation should the nurse identify as a reason to stop the infusion? Which manifestation should the nurse identify as a reason to stop the infusion?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A scratchy throat may signal an allergic reaction to piperacillin-tazobactam, a penicillin derivative, potentially progressing to anaphylaxis. Stopping the infusion immediately prevents severe complications. Other manifestations like bradycardia or hypertension are not typical allergic responses and require monitoring but not immediate cessation.
Question 2 of 5
A client with atrial fibrillation receives a new prescription for dabigatran. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan? Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dabigatran, a direct thrombin inhibitor, increases bleeding risk. NSAIDs inhibit platelet aggregation, exacerbating this risk. Instructing the client to avoid NSAIDs is critical to prevent bleeding complications. Unlike warfarin, dabigatran does not require dietary restrictions like avoiding vitamin K-rich foods, routine bleeding tests, or home antidotes.
Question 3 of 5
A client reports confusion and blurred vision after receiving a dose of glipizide. Which action should the nurse implement? Which action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Glipizide, a sulfonylurea, can cause hypoglycemia, manifesting as confusion and blurred vision. Obtaining a fingerstick blood glucose confirms hypoglycemia, guiding treatment. Neurological exams or vital signs are secondary, and glucagon is premature without confirmed low glucose.
Question 4 of 5
To control asthma, a client in a residential treatment facility uses a fluticasone propionate and salmeterol discus inhalation system, which provides an inhaled powdered form of these combined medications. Which instruction should the nurse provide to this client's caregivers? Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client's caregivers?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The fluticasone/salmeterol discus is a maintenance therapy, used twice daily to prevent asthma symptoms. Instructing caregivers to limit use to twice daily ensures adherence and prevents overuse. Breathing into the mouthpiece wastes medication, the discus is not for acute attacks, and salmeterol may increase blood pressure.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse administers naloxone to a client with opioid-induced respiratory depression. One hour later, nursing assessment reveals that the client has a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation of 75%, and is unable to be aroused. Which action should the nurse implement? Which action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Naloxone’s short duration may not outlast the opioid’s effects, leading to recurrent respiratory depression. Administering a second dose reverses persistent opioid effects, improving respiration and arousal. CPR is premature, chest tubes are irrelevant, and Glasgow scoring is secondary to immediate reversal.