HESI RN
HESI RN 301 Pharmacology Final Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
An older adult client with pernicious anemia has been receiving daily injections of cyanocobalamin for two weeks and reports that the injections are painful. The nurse notes that the client's hematocrit is 43% (0.43 volume fraction). Which action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A hematocrit of 43% is normal, indicating effective treatment. Teaching self-administration can reduce pain and increase control, pending provider approval for ongoing dosing. Other options misstate hematocrit status or necessity.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who has a finger stick blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL (7.21 mmol/L). Prior to administering the scheduled dose of acarbose, the nurse is informed that morning meal trays will be 30 minutes late. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Acarbose, an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor, must be taken with the first bite of a meal to manage postprandial glucose. Holding it until the meal arrives ensures proper timing and efficacy. Administering early, notifying the provider, or rechecking glucose are unnecessary.
Question 3 of 5
When administering ceftriaxone sodium IV to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stridor indicates airway obstruction, a potential anaphylactic reaction to ceftriaxone, requiring immediate intervention. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are less urgent.
Question 4 of 5
A client who is a vegetarian has a new prescription for warfarin. The client reports eating leafy green vegetables every day. How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Leafy greens, high in vitamin K, can reduce warfarin’s effectiveness. The provider needs to know to adjust dosing. Replacing greens, claiming enhanced efficacy, or encouraging unchanged habits are incorrect.
Question 5 of 5
A male client is admitted for observation because he is reporting progressively increasing fatigue over the past month and a brief episode of dizziness that occurred today. He has a history of heartburn and indigestion that he self-treats with ibuprofen and antacids. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Positive guaiac indicates gastrointestinal bleeding, likely from ibuprofen-induced ulcers, requiring urgent reporting. Normal hematocrit, gastric pH, and slightly low hemoglobin are less immediate.