HESI RN
Care Hope College RN HESI Pharmacology Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A patient with hepatic encephalopathy is receiving lactulose. Which assessment provides the nurse with the best information to evaluate the patient’s therapeutic response to the drug?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lactulose reduces ammonia in hepatic encephalopathy by promoting its excretion. Monitoring serum ammonia and electrolytes (
C) evaluates efficacy. Stool changes (
A) are expected but not specific. Glucose (
B) is unrelated. Hepatic enzymes (
D) assess liver damage, not lactulose response.
Question 2 of 5
A client taking atorvastatin has an increased serum creatine phosphokinase (CK) level. What should the nurse assess the client for?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Elevated CK with atorvastatin indicates possible myopathy, causing muscle tenderness (
C). Bruising (
A) is unrelated to CK. Edema (
B) suggests other causes. Nausea/vomiting (
D) are gastrointestinal side effects, not linked to CK.
Question 3 of 5
An elderly client with heart failure arrives at the emergency room due to nausea, vomiting, and anorexia. Based on the client’s signs and symptoms, which piece of data from the medical history is most significant when planning this client’s care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Digoxin and furosemide (
D) can cause nausea, vomiting, and anorexia due to toxicity (digoxin) or electrolyte imbalances (furosemide), critical for heart failure management. Past bypass (
A), colonoscopy (
B), and depression (
C) are less relevant to current symptoms.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with hepatic encephalopathy is receiving lactulose. Which assessment provides the nurse with the best information to evaluate the patient’s therapeutic response to the drug?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lactulose reduces ammonia in hepatic encephalopathy by promoting its excretion. Monitoring serum ammonia and electrolytes (
C) evaluates efficacy. Stool changes (
A) are expected but not specific. Glucose (
B) is unrelated. Hepatic enzymes (
D) assess liver damage, not lactulose response.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse administers naloxone to a patient with opioid-induced respiratory depression. An hour later, the nurse finds the patient has a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation of 75%, and is unresponsive. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Severe respiratory depression (4 breaths/min), hypoxia (75% SpO₂), and unresponsiveness require immediate CPR (
D) to restore circulation/oxygenation. A second naloxone dose (
A) may be needed but is secondary. Chest tubes (
B) are irrelevant. Glasgow scoring (
C) delays critical intervention.