HESI RN
HESI RN 301 Pharmacology Final Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A male client reports to the nurse that he is experiencing gastrointestinal (GI) distress from a high dose of a corticosteroid and is planning to stop taking the medication. In response to the client's statement, which nursing action is most important for the nurse to implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Abruptly stopping corticosteroids risks adrenal insufficiency. Advising gradual tapering is critical. Assessing other effects, taking with food, or reviewing dosing are secondary.
Question 2 of 5
During a home visit, a client informs the nurse about feeling like the heart is skipping beats. When reviewing the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking hydrochlorothiazide. Based on these assessment data, the nurse plans to obtain a blood sample to check for which condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic, increases potassium excretion, potentially causing hypokalemia, which can manifest as palpitations or irregular heartbeats. Hyponatremia is possible but less directly linked to this symptom. Hyperphosphatemia and hypermagnesemia are not typical side effects.
Question 3 of 5
A client who has dysphagia after a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) receives a new prescription for lansoprazole capsules via nasogastric tube (NGT). Which action should the nurse implement prior to administering the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lansoprazole granules are mixed with water for NGT administration to ensure proper delivery. Tablets are unsuitable, crushing alters efficacy, and applesauce is inappropriate for tube administration.
Question 4 of 5
Which instruction should the nurse provide an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is assisting with the personal care of a client receiving clopidogrel?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clopidogrel increases bleeding risk, so a soft toothbrush minimizes gum bleeding. Environment, rest, and bed elevation are unrelated to clopidogrel’s effects.
Question 5 of 5
When preparing to apply a scheduled fentanyl transdermal patch, the nurse notes that the previously applied patch is intact on the client's upper back and the client denies pain. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fentanyl patches are replaced every 72 hours in a new location after removing the old patch to prevent overdose. Oral analgesics, provider consultation, or dual patches are inappropriate.