HESI RN
RN HESI Pharmacology Exam 3 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A male client receives a scopolamine transdermal patch 2 hours before surgery. Four hours after surgery, the client tells the nurse that he is experiencing pain and asks why the patch is not working. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Scopolamine prevents postoperative nausea, not pain. Explaining its purpose clarifies the client’s misunderstanding. New patches, expired effects, or placement checks do not address the pain, which requires separate analgesia.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is teaching a client who has been diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) about the antiretroviral medication regimen. Which statement provided by the client requires additional instruction by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Antiretrovirals reduce viral load and transmission risk but do not fully prevent HIV transmission; safe practices are still needed. The other statements are accurate regarding HIV management and ART benefits.
Question 3 of 5
To control asthma, a client in a residential treatment facility uses a fluticasone propionate and salmeterol discus inhalation system, which provides an inhaled powdered form of these combined medications. Which instruction should the nurse provide to this client's caregivers?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fluticasone/salmeterol is a maintenance therapy, not for acute asthma attacks, and should be used no more than twice daily to avoid side effects like oral thrush. Exhaling into the discus risks clumping the powder, and hypotension is not a common side effect.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse administers naloxone to a client with opioid-induced respiratory depression. One hour later, nursing assessment reveals that the client has a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation of 75%, and is unable to be aroused. Which action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Persistent respiratory depression (4 breaths/minute, 75% oxygen saturation) suggests ongoing opioid toxicity. A second dose of naloxone is needed to reverse opioid effects, as the initial dose may have worn off or been insufficient. CPR, chest tubes, or GCS assessment do not address the opioid-related cause.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for an adult client who is taking carbidopa-levodopa for Parkinson's disease. The client is concerned that the medication is not working. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clarifying the client’s concern about carbidopa-levodopa’s effectiveness guides targeted assessment and intervention. Meal timing, dyskinesia, or urine color are secondary until the specific issue is understood.