HESI RN
HESI RN 311 Pharmacology Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client is scheduled for a spiral computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast to evaluate for pulmonary embolism. Which information in the client’s history requires follow-up by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metformin (
B) risks lactic acidosis with contrast dye due to potential renal impairment. Follow-up ensures temporary discontinuation (e.g., 48 hours post-procedure). Prior CT (
A) is irrelevant unless complications occurred. Sobriety (
C) and metal prosthesis (
D) do not affect contrast safety, though metal may impact image quality.
Question 2 of 5
A client is scheduled for a spiral computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast to evaluate for pulmonary embolism. Which information in the client’s history requires follow-up by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metformin (
B) risks lactic acidosis with contrast dye due to potential renal impairment. Follow-up ensures temporary discontinuation (e.g., 48 hours post-procedure). Prior CT (
A) is irrelevant unless complications occurred. Sobriety (
C) and metal prosthesis (
D) do not affect contrast safety, though metal may impact image quality.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which action should the nurse plan to include in the discharge teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin glargine, a long-acting insulin, requires daily subcutaneous injection. Teaching self-injection skills (
B) ensures proper administration. It’s not for hypoglycemia (
A). Dosing is fixed, not based on pre-meal glucose (
C). Ketoacidosis (
D) requires emergency care, not dose increases.
Question 4 of 5
A client who is receiving pregabalin for fibromyalgia complains of tremors in the hands. Which action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tremors are a potential side effect of pregabalin (
C). Notifying the provider allows evaluation for dose adjustment or alternative therapy. Antianxiety drugs (
A) may mask symptoms without addressing the cause. Orthostatic hypotension (
B) is unrelated to tremors. Glucose levels (
D) are irrelevant without diabetes history.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a history of anaphylactic reaction to penicillin receives a prescription for cephalexin 500 mg PO twice daily. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Contacting the provider (
A) is priority due to a 1-4% cross-reactivity risk between penicillin and cephalexin (a cephalosporin) in penicillin-allergic patients, especially with anaphylaxis history. Antihistamines (
B) cannot prevent anaphylaxis. Administering without consultation (
C) risks severe reaction. Monitoring (
D) is secondary to preventing exposure.