HESI RN 311 Pharmacology | Nurselytic

Questions 41

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HESI RN 311 Pharmacology Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

A client who is receiving pregabalin for fibromyalgia complains of tremors in the hands. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Tremors are a potential side effect of pregabalin (
C). Notifying the provider allows evaluation for dose adjustment or alternative therapy. Antianxiety drugs (
A) may mask symptoms without addressing the cause. Orthostatic hypotension (
B) is unrelated to tremors. Glucose levels (
D) are irrelevant without diabetes history.

Question 2 of 5

A client who has been experiencing headaches since using the herbal remedy feverfew. Which information is important to include for this client?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Feverfew, in the Asteraceae family, risks allergic reactions in those allergic to chamomile/ragweed/yarrow (
A), a critical warning. NSAID interactions (
B), GI side effects (
C), and anxiety (
D) are secondary concerns.

Question 3 of 5

A client with cystitis receives a prescription for phenazopyridine. Which information should the nurse explain to the client about its therapeutic effect?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Phenazopyridine provides analgesia for irritated bladder mucosa (
D), relieving pain/burning in cystitis. It is not an antibiotic (
A), not specifically post-intercourse (
B), and lacks antispasmodic effects (
C). It’s taken after meals to reduce GI upset.

Question 4 of 5

A client with a history of anaphylactic reaction to penicillin receives a prescription for cephalexin 500 mg PO twice daily. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Contacting the provider (
A) is priority due to a 1-4% cross-reactivity risk between penicillin and cephalexin (a cephalosporin) in penicillin-allergic patients, especially with anaphylaxis history. Antihistamines (
B) cannot prevent anaphylaxis. Administering without consultation (
C) risks severe reaction. Monitoring (
D) is secondary to preventing exposure.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client with atrial fibrillation who receives a prescription for warfarin. The international normalized ratio (INR) is 2.8. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: An INR of 2.8 is therapeutic for atrial fibrillation (2.0-3.0), but notifying the provider (
D) ensures dose stability per protocol. Giving the dose (
A) is likely safe but not prioritized. Repeat sampling (
B) is unnecessary unless error is suspected. Bleeding monitoring (
C) is routine, not primary.

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