HESI RN
HESI RN 311 Pharmacology Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
When administering zolpidem to an older client, which computer documentation indicates that the desired outcome has been achieved?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Zolpidem, a sedative-hypnotic, treats insomnia. Sleeping soundly through the night (
D) indicates efficacy. Incontinence (
A), concentration (
B), and emotional outbursts (
C) are unrelated to its primary effect.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a history of smoking cigarettes for many years arrives at the clinic and expresses a desire to stop smoking. The client receives a prescription for bupropion to reduce nicotine cravings. Which information should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bupropion may cause insomnia and weight loss (
A) due to its stimulant effects, requiring patient awareness. Taste changes (
B) are not common. No specific water requirement exists (
C). Tyramine-free diets (
D) are for MAOIs, not bupropion.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is administering sucralfate to a client with stomatitis secondary to chemotherapy. The client wants to take the medication after breakfast. How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sucralfate requires an empty stomach, 1 hour before meals (
B), to coat ulcers/stomatitis effectively. Documenting refusal (
A) is premature without education. Post-meal dosing (C,
D) reduces efficacy due to food interference.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with hypertension, gastroesophageal reflux, and osteoarthritis. While performing a bedside assessment, the nurse observes the client is alert and oriented but is exhibiting signs of jaundice. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider about which scheduled medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acetaminophen (
B) is a common cause of drug-induced liver injury, leading to jaundice. Notifying the provider is critical. Omeprazole (
A) rarely causes liver issues. Captopril (
C) and prednisone (
D) are less likely to cause jaundice. Baseline liver function tests are key.
Question 5 of 5
A client is receiving tamsulosin, an alpha-adrenergic blocking agent, for the management of urinary retention due to benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tamsulosin causes orthostatic hypotension, risking dizziness/falls. Standing/sitting slowly (
B) prevents injury. Timing (
A) is flexible (30 minutes after a meal). Fluid restriction (
C) is unnecessary. Tamsulosin is daily, not twice-weekly (
D).