HESI RN
HESI Bsn 225 RN Pharmacology Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with hypertension, gastroesophageal reflux, and osteoarthritis. While performing a bedside assessment, the nurse observes the client is alert and oriented, but is exhibiting signs of jaundice. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider about which scheduled medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acetaminophen can cause liver toxicity, manifesting as jaundice, especially with high doses. Captopril, omeprazole, and prednisone are less commonly associated with jaundice.
Extract:
History and physical
The client is a 26-year-old female with acute appendicitis. She has a 12 year history of type 1 diabetes mellitus and no other significant medical history. The appendectomy was completed without issue, and the client will be admitted to the surgical floor to recover.
Nurses notes
0730
Admitted the client. She is awake and alert. She rates her pain 2 on a 0 to 10 pain scale. Her pulses are equal bilaterally. Heart rate is 76 beats/minute, normal sinus rhythm. Her oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. She has a gauze dressing over her surgical site, which is clean and dry. Her temperature is 98.5° F (37.0° C) orally. She urinated 50 mL upon arrival in the unit and is reporting she
Lab results
Blood glucose 279mg/dl
Orders
• Admit to the surgical floor
• Dextrose 5% and 0.9% sodium chloride IV to infuse at 125 mL/hr
Advance diet as tolerated
• Insulin glargine 12 units SUBQ every 24 hours
. Ceftriaxone 2 gram IV piggy back (IVPB) every
24 hours for 3 days, first dose given in surgery
Question 2 of 5
According to the information gathered in the nurse's assessment, the nurse should prepare to give the client [Dropdown 1] and [Dropdown 2].
Correct Answer: A,B
Rationale: A blood glucose of 279 mg/dL requires insulin glargine for correction, and a snack prevents hypoglycemia post-insulin.
Extract:
Question 3 of 5
A client is receiving tamsulosin, an alpha-adrenergic blocking agent, for the management of urinary retention due to benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tamsulosin may cause orthostatic hypotension, so standing and sitting slowly prevents dizziness or falls. Fluid reduction, early dosing, or twice-weekly schedules are incorrect for tamsulosin.
Question 4 of 5
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving calcium acetate 667 mg PO. A decrease in which blood value indicates to the nurse that the medication is having the desired effect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Calcium acetate lowers phosphate levels in CKD by binding dietary phosphate. A decreased phosphate level indicates effectiveness. pH, potassium, and calcium are not primary targets.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client with metastatic cancer who is prescribed morphine for bone pain. Which information from the client indicates to the nurse an understanding of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Morphine causes constipation, so monitoring bowel movements and using a stool softener demonstrates understanding. Agitation/insomnia, benzodiazepine timing, and grapefruit juice are not primary concerns.