HESI RN
HESI Bsn 225 RN Pharmacology Questions
Extract:
History and physical
The client is a 26-year-old female with acute appendicitis. She has a 12 year history of type 1 diabetes mellitus and no other significant medical history. The appendectomy was completed without issue, and the client will be admitted to the surgical floor to recover.
Nurses notes
0730
Admitted the client. She is awake and alert. She rates her pain 2 on a 0 to 10 pain scale. Her pulses are equal bilaterally. Heart rate is 76 beats/minute, normal sinus rhythm. Her oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. She has a gauze dressing over her surgical site, which is clean and dry. Her temperature is 98.5° F (37.0° C) orally. She urinated 50 mL upon arrival in the unit and is reporting she
Lab results
Blood glucose 279mg/dl
Orders
• Admit to the surgical floor
• Dextrose 5% and 0.9% sodium chloride IV to infuse at 125 mL/hr
Advance diet as tolerated
• Insulin glargine 12 units SUBQ every 24 hours
. Ceftriaxone 2 gram IV piggy back (IVPB) every
24 hours for 3 days, first dose given in surgery
Question 1 of 5
According to the information gathered in the nurse's assessment, the nurse should prepare to give the client [Dropdown 1] and [Dropdown 2].
Correct Answer: A,B
Rationale: A blood glucose of 279 mg/dL requires insulin glargine for correction, and a snack prevents hypoglycemia post-insulin.
Extract:
Question 2 of 5
A young adult female client who is planning to become pregnant asks the nurse if she can continue taking isotretinoin for cystic acne. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide this client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Isotretinoin is highly teratogenic, requiring discontinuation at least one month before conception to prevent birth defects. Breastfeeding, vitamin A, and liver monitoring are secondary concerns.
Question 3 of 5
A client is receiving tamsulosin, an alpha-adrenergic blocking agent, for the management of urinary retention due to benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tamsulosin may cause orthostatic hypotension, so standing and sitting slowly prevents dizziness or falls. Fluid reduction, early dosing, or twice-weekly schedules are incorrect for tamsulosin.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a history of anaphylactic reaction to penicillin receives a prescription for cephalexin 500 mg PO twice daily. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cephalexin may cause cross-reactivity in penicillin-allergic clients, so monitoring for allergic reactions like rash or hives is critical. Administering without monitoring, contacting the provider immediately, or giving antihistamines prophylactically are less appropriate.
Question 5 of 5
Before administering the initial dose of sumatriptan succinate to a client with a migraine headache, it is most important to determine if the client's history includes which problem?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sumatriptan causes vasoconstriction, which can exacerbate coronary artery disease, making this history critical to assess. IBS, rhinitis, and diabetes are not contraindications.