HESI RN
Wgu RN HESI Pharmacology Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
On admission, the healthcare provider prescribes a broad spectrum antibiotic for a client with a gram-negative infection. Before administering the first dose, it is most important for the nurse to implement which prescription?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Obtaining cultures before antibiotics ensures identification of the pathogen and its sensitivities, guiding effective therapy.
Topical antibiotics, fluid monitoring, or lab tests are secondary.
Question 2 of 5
A client who is experiencing vasomotor symptoms related to menopause receives a new prescription for estrogen replacement. Which client condition should the nurse report to the healthcare provider prior to administering the first dose of the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Estrogen increases thromboembolism risk, and a history of pulmonary embolism is a contraindication due to potential recurrence. Colorectal cancer, dyspareunia, and osteoporosis are not absolute contraindications; estrogen may even benefit osteoporosis.
Question 3 of 5
To control asthma, a client in a residential treatment facility uses a fluticasone propionate and salmeterol discus inhalation system, which provides an inhaled powdered form of these combined medications. Which instruction should the nurse provide to this client's caregivers?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fluticasone/salmeterol is for maintenance, used twice daily maximum to avoid side effects. Rapid exhalation, acute attack use, or hypotension are incorrect.
Question 4 of 5
After receiving the third dose of a new oral anticoagulant prescription, an older client develops bleeding and tender gums and has many new bruises. Which action(s) should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,C,D
Rationale: Bleeding and bruising suggest anticoagulant complications. A soft toothbrush minimizes gum trauma, reviewing coagulation labs guides management, and reporting to the provider ensures intervention. NSAIDs increase bleeding risk, and a variance report, while useful, is not an immediate priority.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse administers naloxone to a client with opioid-induced respiratory depression. One hour later, nursing assessment reveals that the client has a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation of 75%, and is unable to be aroused. Which action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Persistent respiratory depression (4 breaths/min, 75% saturation) indicates ongoing opioid toxicity. Naloxone’s short half-life may require a second dose to reverse opioid effects. Chest tubes, GCS, or CPR do not address the opioid-related cause.