HESI RN
Care Hope College RN HESI Pharmacology Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A patient with nasal congestion has been prescribed phenylephrine 10 mg by mouth every 4 hours. What patient condition should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Phenylephrine, a decongestant, can raise blood pressure, making hypertension (
A) a contraindication requiring provider consultation. Bronchitis (
B), diarrhea (
C), and edema (
D) are not directly affected by phenylephrine.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with stage 4 cancer who has a prescription for a subcutaneous morphine sulfate patch for pain. The client is short of breath and difficult to arouse. During a head-to-toe assessment, the nurse finds four patches on the client’s body. What should be the nurse’s first action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Four morphine patches suggest overdose, causing respiratory depression and sedation. Removing the patches (
C) stops further absorption. Naloxone (
A) or oxygen (
B) may follow, but removal is first. Blood pressure monitoring (
D) is secondary.
Question 3 of 5
An adult patient at an outpatient clinic has been prescribed the antibiotic tetracycline HCI. What should the nurse include in the patient’s teaching plan?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tetracycline causes photosensitivity, increasing sunburn risk, so sun protection (
B) is essential. Milk/antacids (
A) reduce absorption by chelating tetracycline. Orange juice (
C) contains calcium, impairing absorption. Weekly drug level checks (
D) are not required for tetracycline.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse about the duration of use for the prescribed eye drops. What is the nurse’s accurate response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Open-angle glaucoma requires lifelong eye drops to maintain normal intraocular pressure (
D). They don’t control pain/swelling (
A) or restore angles (
B). Pressure reduction (
C) is ongoing, not temporary.
Question 5 of 5
After taking orlistat for one week, a female patient tells the home health nurse that she is experiencing increasingly frequent oily stools and gas. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Orlistat inhibits fat absorption, causing oily stools and gas if dietary fat is high. Assessing dietary intake (
A) identifies the cause. Stopping the drug (
B) is premature. Increasing fats (
C) worsens symptoms. Stool testing (
D) is unnecessary for known side effects.