HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client with psychosis who is receiving an antipsychotic medication is continuously rubbing the back of the neck. Which nursing intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Neck rubbing suggests acute dystonia, an antipsychotic side effect. Benztropine (
C), an anticholinergic, relieves dystonia. Pillows (
A), heating pads (
B), and therapy (
D) don’t address the cause.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse assesses a client with intermittent claudication who is receiving pentoxifylline. Which assessment should the nurse perform to determine the effectiveness of the medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pentoxifylline improves blood flow in intermittent claudication. Monitoring pain scale (
D) assesses reduced leg pain during activity. Consciousness (
A), bowel sounds (
B), and urine output (
C) are unrelated.
Question 3 of 5
Rivastigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor, is prescribed for a female client with early-stage Alzheimer’s disease. The client’s daughter tells the nurse that she plans to start administering the drug when her mothers’ symptoms are no longer manageable, in hopes that her mother will not have to go to a nursing home. How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rivastigmine slows cognitive decline in early Alzheimer’s, most effective when started early (
A). Delaying until symptoms worsen (
B) reduces efficacy. Assessing mental status (
C) or discussing progression (
D) are less direct.
Question 4 of 5
A client who received a renal transplant three months ago is readmitted to the acute care unit with signs of graft rejection. While taking the client’s history, the nurse determines that the client has been self-administering St. John's Wort, an herbal preparation on the advice of a friend. Which information is most significant about this finding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: St. John’s Wort induces cytochrome P450 enzymes, reducing cyclosporine levels (
B), an immunosuppressant, risking graft rejection. Depression use (
A) is possible but less critical. Sodium (
C) and corticosteroids (D, E) are unrelated.
Choice E is a duplicate.
Question 5 of 5
An elderly client with heart failure comet to the emergency room because of nausea, vomiting, and anorexia. Based on the client’s signs and symptoms, which data from the medical history has the most significance when planning this client’s care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity causes nausea, vomiting, and anorexia; furosemide risks electrolyte imbalances (e.g., hypokalemia), exacerbating symptoms (
C). Bypass (
A), depression (
B), and colonoscopy (
D) are less relevant.