HESI RN
Nightdale College HESI Pharmacology RN Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client with benign prostatic BPH hyperplasia receives a new prescription of tamsulosin. Which intervention should the nurse perform to monitor for an adverse reaction? Which intervention should the nurse perform to monitor for an adverse reaction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tamsulosin, an alpha-blocker, can cause orthostatic hypotension, increasing fall risk. Measuring blood pressure regularly monitors for this adverse reaction, ensuring safety. Bladder scans and urine output assess BPH symptoms, not tamsulosin side effects, and weights are unrelated.
Question 2 of 5
A glucagon emergency kit is prescribed for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus to be used at home. When should the nurse instruct the client and family that glucagon needs to be administered? When should the nurse instruct the client and family that glucagon needs to be administered?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Glucagon raises blood glucose by mobilizing glycogen stores, indicated for severe hypoglycemia (e.g., unconsciousness or seizures) when oral glucose is not feasible. It is not used for ketoacidosis, hyperglycemia prevention, or sick days without hypoglycemia, making severe hypoglycemia the correct indication.
Question 3 of 5
A client receives a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which statement made by the client indicates to the nurse that the education was effective? Which statement made by the client indicates to the nurse that the education was effective?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Levothyroxine is best absorbed on an empty stomach, at least 30 minutes before breakfast, to ensure optimal efficacy. High-iodine foods may affect thyroid function, bedtime dosing risks insomnia, and iron supplements should be taken separately but not avoided entirely, making the empty stomach statement the most accurate indicator of effective education.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse admits a client with a diagnosis of stage 4 cancer. The client has a prescription to wear a subcutaneous morphine sulfate patch for pain. The client is short of breath and difficult to arouse. While performing a head to toe assessment, the nurse discovers four patches on the client's body. Which action should the nurse take first? Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Multiple morphine patches indicate an overdose, causing respiratory depression and sedation. Removing the patches stops further drug absorption, addressing the root cause. Oxygen or reversal drugs may follow, but removing the source is the priority to prevent worsening of the overdose.
Question 5 of 5
The health care provider prescribes the antibiotic tetracycline HCl for an adult client who arrived at an outpatient clinic. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client? Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tetracycline causes photosensitivity, increasing sunburn risk. Instructing the client to protect their skin from sunlight is critical to prevent skin damage. Other options, like taking with milk or orange juice, reduce absorption, and serum levels are not routinely monitored for tetracycline.