HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Which nursing action had the highest priority when administering a dose of codeine with acetaminophen to a client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Codeine causes sedation and dizziness, increasing fall risk. Instructing assistance for ambulation (
C) prioritizes safety. Onset time (
A), constipation prevention (
B), and pain relief reporting (
D) are secondary.
Question 2 of 5
Rivastigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor, is prescribed for a female client with early-stage Alzheimer’s disease. The client’s daughter tells the nurse that she plans to start administering the drug when her mothers’ symptoms are no longer manageable, in hopes that her mother will not have to go to a nursing home. How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rivastigmine slows cognitive decline in early Alzheimer’s, most effective when started early (
A). Delaying until symptoms worsen (
B) reduces efficacy. Assessing mental status (
C) or discussing progression (
D) are less direct.
Question 3 of 5
A client taking atorvastatin becomes an increased serum creatine phosphokinase (CK) level. The nurse should assess the client for the onset of which problem?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Atorvastatin can cause myopathy, indicated by elevated CK levels. Muscle tenderness (
D) suggests muscle damage, requiring assessment. Nausea (
A), bruising (
B), and edema (
C) are not typical.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a client who is taking ciprofloxacin hydrochloride tablets which were prescribed because of a suspected anthrax exposure. Which instructions should be included in the teaching plan?
Correct Answer: A,D
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin, a fluoroquinolone, risks tendonitis/tendon rupture (
A), requiring immediate reporting, especially in older adults or those on corticosteroids. It causes photosensitivity (
D), necessitating sun protection. NSAIDs (
B) increase seizure risk, not recommended. Crushing tablets (
C) alters efficacy and is contraindicated.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is planning to discharge teaching for a client with diabetes mellitus who has a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which action should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Insulin glargine, a long-acting insulin, requires daily subcutaneous injection at a consistent dose. Teaching self-injection skills (
A) ensures proper administration. Dosing is not based on pre-meal glucose (
B). Glargine treats hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia (
C). Ketoacidosis requires medical intervention, not dose increases (
D).