HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Two months after taking nitrofurantoin for a bacterial infection, a client reports the onset of severe, watery diarrhea to the home care nurse. How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nitrofurantoin can cause severe diarrhea, potentially indicating C. difficile infection. Explaining it as an adverse effect needing evaluation (
B) is priority. Completion status (
A) is secondary, antidiarrheals (
C) may worsen infection, and reinfection (
D) is premature.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse admits a client with a diagnosis of stage 4 cancer. The client has a prescription to wear a subcutaneous morphine sulfate patch for pain. The client is short of breath and difficult to arouse. While performing a head-to-toe assessment, the nurse discovers four patches on the client’s body. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Multiple morphine patches suggest overdose, causing respiratory depression and sedation. Removing patches (
A) stops further absorption, the priority. Blood pressure (
B), oxygen (
C), and reversal (
D) follow.
Question 3 of 5
A client with benign prostatic receives a new prescription of tamsulosin. Which intervention should the nurse use to monitor an adverse reaction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tamsulosin, an alpha-blocker, risks hypotension, causing dizziness or fainting. Monitoring blood pressure (
C) detects this adverse effect. Urine output (
A), bladder scans (
B), and weights (
D) are unrelated.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who is taking diclofenac, an NSAID drug for rheumatoid arthritis. During a clinic visit, the client appears pale and reports increasing fatigue. Which of the client’s serum laboratory values is most important for the nurse to review?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Diclofenac risks GI bleeding, causing anemia. Pallor and fatigue suggest low hemoglobin (
D), requiring review. Glucose (
A), protein (
B), and sodium (
C) are unrelated.
Question 5 of 5
A client is scheduled for a spiral computed topography (CT) scan with contrast to evaluate for pulmonary embolism. Which information in the client’s history requires follow-up by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metformin risks lactic acidosis with contrast dye due to renal effects. Follow-up (
B) ensures temporary discontinuation. Prior CT (
A), prosthesis (
C), and sobriety (
D) are less critical.