HESI RN
Wgu HESI RN Pharmacology 1 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The healthcare provider prescribes propylthiouracil (PTU) and Lugol's solution, a strong iodine solution, for a client with hyperthyroidism. How should the nurse schedule the administration of these medications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lugol’s solution reduces thyroid hormone production rapidly, preparing the gland for PTU, which inhibits hormone synthesis. Administering iodine one hour before PTU optimizes treatment efficacy. Meal timing, bedtime scheduling, or parenteral dosing are incorrect.
Question 2 of 5
After receiving the third dose of a new oral anticoagulant prescription, an older adult client develops bleeding and tender gums and has many new bruises. Which actions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B,C,D,E
Rationale: Bleeding and bruising suggest anticoagulant-related complications. Completing a variance report documents issues, reviewing coagulation labs guides management, reporting to the provider ensures intervention, and a soft toothbrush reduces gum trauma. NSAIDs increase bleeding risk and are contraindicated.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is reviewing the client's laboratory values. Which serum laboratory value indicates to the nurse that a prescription for atorvastatin is having the desired effect for a client at risk for coronary artery disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atorvastatin lowers LDL cholesterol, reducing coronary artery disease risk. Decreased LDL levels indicate effectiveness. HDL, CK, and PT are not primary measures of atorvastatin’s therapeutic effect.
Question 4 of 5
A client who is taking an oral contraceptive receives a new prescription for erythromycin. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Erythromycin may reduce oral contraceptive efficacy by altering metabolism. Using additional contraception (e.g., condoms) prevents unintended pregnancy. Stopping the contraceptive, spacing doses, or avoiding sunlight are not necessary.
Question 5 of 5
A client with chemotherapy-induced nausea receives a prescription for metoclopramide. Which adverse effect is most important for the nurse to report?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Involuntary movements may indicate extrapyramidal side effects like tardive dyskinesia, a serious, potentially irreversible metoclopramide complication, requiring immediate reporting. Diarrhea, irritability, or nausea are less urgent, with nausea being the treated symptom.