HESI RN
Wgu HESI RN Pharmacology 1 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The healthcare provider prescribes magnesium sulfate 300 mg/hour IV. The IV bag contains magnesium sulfate 4 grams in dextrose 5% in water (D5W) 500 mL. How many mL/hour should the nurse set the infusion pump? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)
Correct Answer: 37.5
Rationale: Convert 4 grams to 4000 mg. Infusion rate = (300 mg/hr) ÷ (4000 mg/500 mL) = 300 × 500 ÷ 4000 = 37.5 mL/hr. The pump should be set to 37.5 mL/hr.
Question 2 of 5
Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) who is receiving insulin lispro?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin lispro, rapid-acting, peaks 1-2 hours post-dose, requiring meals shortly after administration to prevent hypoglycemia. Synchronizing meal timing with insulin is critical. Hypoglycemia checks, glucose sources, and monitoring are supportive but secondary.
Question 3 of 5
A male client receives a scopolamine transdermal patch 2 hours before surgery. Four hours after surgery, the client tells the nurse that he is experiencing pain and asks why the patch is not working. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine prevents postoperative nausea, not pain. Explaining its purpose clarifies the client’s misunderstanding. Placement checks, expired effects, or new patches do not address the pain, which requires separate analgesia.
Question 4 of 5
A glucagon emergency kit is prescribed for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus. When should the nurse instruct the client and family that glucagon needs to be administered?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Glucagon raises blood glucose in severe hypoglycemia (e.g., unconsciousness), preventing complications. It’s not for hyperglycemia, sick days, or diabetic ketoacidosis, which require insulin and other treatments.
Question 5 of 5
A male client is admitted for observation because he is reporting progressively increasing fatigue over the past month and a brief episode of dizziness that occurred today. He has a history of heartburn and indigestion that he self-treats with ibuprofen and antacids. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider? Reference Ranges: Hemoglobin [14 to 18 g/dL (8.7 to 11.2 mmol/L)] Hematocrit [42% to 52% (0.42 to 0.52 volume fraction)] Gastric pH [1.5 to 3.5]
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A positive guaiac test indicates occult blood, suggesting gastrointestinal bleeding, potentially from ibuprofen use, which exacerbates gastric irritation. This requires immediate reporting for evaluation, given the client’s fatigue and dizziness. Normal hematocrit, slightly low hemoglobin, and normal gastric pH are less urgent.