HESI RN Med Surg Exam 2 | Nurselytic

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HESI RN Med Surg Exam 2 Questions

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Question 1 of 5

The healthcare provider prescribes 100 mL of 0.9% normal saline to be infused within 15 minutes. The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many mL/hr?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (400 mL/hr). Calculation: 100 mL ÷ 15 min = 100 mL ÷ 0.25 hr = 400 mL/hr. This sets the infusion pump correctly for the prescribed time.

Question 2 of 5

A client is recovering from an episode of urinary tract calculi. During discharge teaching, the client asks about dietary restrictions. In discussing fluid intake, the nurse should include which type of fluid limitation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because citrus juices are high in oxalates, which can contribute to kidney stone formation.
Choice B contains oxalates but is less significant.
Choice C is incorrect as fluid intake should be increased.
Choice D is unrelated to stone prevention.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus (DI). Which data warrants the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because severe hypernatremia (185 mEq/L) can cause neurological damage and requires urgent correction.
Choice B is a symptom of DI but less urgent.
Choice C indicates dehydration but is secondary.
Choice D is elevated but not as critical.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse determines that an adult client who is admitted to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C), a heart rate of 88 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/68 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a low tympanic temperature may result from improper measurement, requiring verification with another method.
Choice A is unrelated to temperature.
Choice C is not the priority.
Choice D is routine but not immediate.

Question 5 of 5

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) missed dialysis yesterday to attend a funeral. The client's spouse calls the home health nurse and reports that the client is lethargic and hard to arouse. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because missed dialysis can cause severe electrolyte imbalances and fluid overload, requiring urgent medical evaluation.
Choice A is not targeted to the cause.
Choice C assesses access but not the acute issue.
Choice D is a general recommendation, not urgent.

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