HESI RN
HESI RN Med Surg Exam 2 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The healthcare provider (HCP) prescribes diazepam 8 mg IM every 4 hours PRN muscle spasms for a client with a fractured femur. The available vial is labeled, 'Diazepam Injection, USP 10 mg/2 mL.' How many mL should the nurse administer to the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (1.6 mL). Calculation: 8 mg ÷ (10 mg/2 mL) = 8 mg ÷ 5 mg/mL = 1.6 mL. This ensures the correct dose is administered for muscle spasms.
Question 2 of 5
A client who had a C-5 spinal cord injury 2 years ago is admitted to the emergency department (ED) with the diagnosis of autonomic dysreflexia secondary to a full bladder. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect this client to exhibit?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because autonomic dysreflexia causes hypertension, diaphoresis, and headache due to stimuli like a full bladder.
Choice A is opposite (hypotension).
Choice B suggests infection, not dysreflexia.
Choice D is unrelated.
Question 3 of 5
The healthcare provider (HCP) prescribes diazepam 8 mg IM every 4 hours PRN muscle spasms for a client with a fractured femur. The available vial is labeled, 'Diazepam Injection, USP 10 mg/2 mL.' How many mL should the nurse administer to the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (1.6 mL). Calculation: 8 mg ÷ (10 mg/2 mL) = 8 mg ÷ 5 mg/mL = 1.6 mL. This ensures the correct dose is administered for muscle spasms.
Question 4 of 5
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) missed dialysis yesterday to attend a funeral. The client's spouse calls the home health nurse and reports that the client is lethargic and hard to arouse. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because missed dialysis can cause severe electrolyte imbalances and fluid overload, requiring urgent medical evaluation.
Choice A is not targeted to the cause.
Choice C assesses access but not the acute issue.
Choice D is a general recommendation, not urgent.
Question 5 of 5
A client with an external fixation device for a fractured left femur is troubled with left foot pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because swelling may indicate compartment syndrome, a serious complication requiring immediate assessment.
Choice B is unrelated to the pain or fixation device.