HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Exam 2 Questions
Extract:
History and Physical
The client is a 54-year-old male with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes. He takes spironolactone 25 mg per day, metformin 500 mg twice a day, and 25 units of insulin glargine.
Orders
• prescription of captopril 25mg by mouth twice a day
Laboratory Test
Hemoglobin A1C:
• Result- 6.8%
• Reference Range- 4 to 5.9%
Question 1 of 5
For each instruction, click to indicate whether the instructions given by the nurse are indicated or contraindicated to prepare for the client’s first dose of captopril.
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Holding spironolactone reduces hyperkalemia risk with captopril, lying down manages hypotension, and monitoring blood pressure ensures safety. Increasing insulin or limiting fluids lacks rationale and risks hypoglycemia or dehydration.
Extract:
Question 2 of 5
The nurse initiates an infusion of piperacillin-tazobactam for a client with a urinary tract infection. Five minutes into the infusion, the client reports not feeling well. Which client manifestation should the nurse identify as a reason to stop the infusion?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A scratchy throat may signal an allergic reaction to piperacillin-tazobactam, a penicillin derivative, potentially progressing to anaphylaxis. Stopping the infusion immediately prevents severe complications. Pupillary constriction, hypertension, and bradycardia are not typical allergic responses and require monitoring but not immediate cessation.
Question 3 of 5
An older adult with iron deficiency anemia is being discharged with a prescription for ferrous sulfate enteric-coated tablets. To promote best absorption of the medication, which information should the nurse include in the discharge instructions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ferrous sulfate is best absorbed on an empty stomach, waiting 2 hours after meals to avoid interference from food or minerals like calcium. Bedtime dosing risks GI upset, crushing enteric-coated tablets causes irritation, and multivitamins may contain interfering substances.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is planning care for a client with major depression who is receiving a new prescription for duloxetine. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Duloxetine is metabolized by the liver, and hepatotoxicity is a rare but serious risk. Obtaining liver function test results ensures safe administration, as impaired liver function increases toxicity risk. Family history, weight changes, or other antidepressant use are relevant but secondary to liver function.
Question 5 of 5
A client with anemia secondary to chronic kidney disease (CKD) started a prescription for epoetin alfa two months ago. Which client finding best indicates that the medication is effective? Reference Range: Hemoglobin (Hgb) [Reference Range: Male: 14 to 18 g/dL (8.7 to 11.2 mmol/L)]
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, increasing hemoglobin. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates effective treatment of anemia, though still below the male reference range. Subjective energy improvements, iron intake, or therapy tolerance are less direct indicators of epoetin’s efficacy.