HESI RN
HESI RN Med Surg Exam 2 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
During a routine eye examination, an older client reports decreased peripheral vision and is found to have elevated intraocular pressures. Ophthalmic drops are prescribed for primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG). Which intervention(s) should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B,D,E
Rationale: The correct answers are B, D, and E because lifelong eye drop use (
B) manages glaucoma, applying pressure to the inner eye corner (
D) minimizes systemic absorption, and aseptic administration (E) prevents infections.
Choice A is incorrect as drops control pressure, not restore vision.
Choice C is unrelated to glaucoma.
Question 2 of 5
A client with Addison's disease started taking hydrocortisone in a divided daily dose last week. It is most important for the nurse to monitor which serum laboratory value?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because hydrocortisone can elevate blood glucose, requiring monitoring in Addison's disease.
Choice A is less relevant to hydrocortisone.
Choice B is unrelated to hydrocortisone effects.
Choice D is not directly affected.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus (DI). Which data warrants the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because severe hypernatremia (185 mEq/L) can cause neurological damage and requires urgent correction.
Choice B is a symptom of DI but less urgent.
Choice C indicates dehydration but is secondary.
Choice D is elevated but not as critical.
Question 4 of 5
The healthcare provider prescribes 100 mL of 0.9% normal saline to be infused within 15 minutes. The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (400 mL/hr). Calculation: 100 mL ÷ 15 min = 100 mL ÷ 0.25 hr = 400 mL/hr. This sets the infusion pump correctly for the prescribed time.
Question 5 of 5
Which nursing problem should be selected for a client who is receiving thrombolytic infusions for treatment of an acute myocardial infarction (AMI)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because thrombolytics increase bleeding risk, making injury prevention critical.
Choice A is less common.
Choice B is secondary to immediate risks.
Choice D is relevant but not the priority.