HESI RN
Wgu RN HESI Pharmocology Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
An older adult with iron deficiency anemia is being discharged with a prescription for ferrous sulfate enteric-coated tablets. To promote best absorption of the medication, which information should the nurse include in the discharge instructions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ferrous sulfate is best absorbed on an empty stomach, 2 hours after meals (
A) (matches 55-Q13). Bedtime dosing (
B) isn’t specific. Multivitamins (
C) may reduce absorption. Crushing enteric-coated tablets (
D) disrupts their coating.
Question 2 of 5
Prior to administering oral doses of calcitriol and calcium carbonate to a client with hypoparathyroidism, the nurse notes that the client's total calcium level is 14 mg/dL (3.5 mmol/L). Which action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A calcium level of 14 mg/dL indicates hypercalcemia (normal: 9-10.5 mg/dL). Holding both calcitriol and calcium carbonate (
C) and contacting the provider prevents worsening hypercalcemia. Administering either (A, B,
D) risks complications like arrhythmias or kidney stones.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is planning to administer the antiulcer gastrointestinal (GI) agent sucralfate to a client with peptic ulcer disease. Which action should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sucralfate forms a protective barrier over ulcers and should be given on an empty stomach (
A), 1 hour before meals or at bedtime (matches 55-Q10). Candida infection (
B) and electrolyte imbalances (
D) are not associated. Once-daily dosing (
C) is incorrect; it’s typically 4 times daily.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a client who is taking ciprofloxacin hydrochloride tablets, which were prescribed because of a suspected anthrax exposure. Which instruction(s) should be included in the teaching plan?
Correct Answer: B,C,E
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin requires reporting tendon pain (
B) due to rupture risk, high fluid intake (
C) to prevent crystalluria, and sun protection (E) due to photosensitivity (matches 55-Q24). Crushing tablets (
A) alters release. NSAIDs (
D) increase seizure risk.
Question 5 of 5
A client with chemotherapy-induced nausea receives a prescription for metoclopramide. Which adverse effect is most important for the nurse to report?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Involuntary movements (
B), such as tardive dyskinesia, are a serious, potentially irreversible metoclopramide side effect (matches 55-Q5/12). Diarrhea (
A) and irritability (
D) are less severe. Nausea (
C) is the treated condition.