HESI RN
HESI RN Med Surg Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
An adult client newly diagnosed with left ventricular dysfunction is admitted to the hospital with fine rales and wheezing. When assessing this client, which additional finding is the nurse likely to obtain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Left ventricular dysfunction reduces cardiac output, leading to fatigue due to inadequate systemic perfusion, unlike other findings which are more associated with right ventricular dysfunction.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is preparing an older adult client for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with contrast. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the scan is performed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elevated serum creatinine (1.9 mg/dL) indicates impaired kidney function, increasing the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy, requiring reporting before an MRI with contrast.
Question 3 of 5
Two weeks after returning home from traveling, a client presents to the clinic with conjunctivitis and describes a recent loss in the ability to taste and smell. The nurse obtains a nasal swab to test for COVID 19. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Isolating the client prevents potential COVID-19 transmission, critical given symptoms suggestive of infection, protecting others until test results confirm the diagnosis.
Question 4 of 5
A client presents with the onset of a severe headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, and a petechial rash on arms and legs. The nurse recognizes the client is exhibiting symptoms of which condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Severe headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, and petechial rash are classic symptoms of meningococcal meningitis, caused by Neisseria meningitidis, requiring urgent recognition and treatment.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an infant with heart failure who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarctation of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Which pathophysiologic mechanism supports these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Coarctation of the aorta narrows the aortic lumen, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities, causing higher blood pressure in the arms and weaker pulses in the legs.