HESI RN
HESI RN D441 Pharmacology 0A1 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A male client receives a scopolamine transdermal patch 2 hours before surgery. Four hours after surgery, the client tells the nurse that he is experiencing pain and asks why the patch is not working. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Scopolamine is used to prevent nausea, not pain. The nurse should clarify this to manage the client’s expectations and address pain with appropriate analgesics.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has been prescribed an inhaled medication. Which statement provided by the client indicates a correct understanding of the instructions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rinsing the mouth after using an inhaled medication, especially corticosteroids, prevents oral thrush and other side effects. This indicates correct understanding, unlike using the inhaler during meals, limiting caffeine, or fixed bedtime use, which are not universally appropriate.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse administers naloxone to a client with opioid-induced respiratory depression. One hour later, nursing assessment reveals that the client has a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation of 75%, and is unable to be aroused. Which action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone has a shorter half-life than most opioids, so opioid-induced respiratory depression may persist. The client’s severe symptoms (respiratory rate of 4 breaths/min, oxygen saturation of 75%, unresponsiveness) indicate the initial dose was insufficient. Administering a second dose of naloxone is the priority to reverse the opioid effects and address the life-threatening hypoxia.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for an adult client who is taking digoxin. Which laboratory value should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity and cardiac arrhythmias. This value requires immediate reporting to prevent potentially life-threatening complications.
Question 5 of 5
A male client is admitted for observation because he is reporting progressively increasing fatigue over the past month and a brief episode of dizziness that occurred today. He has a history of heartburn and indigestion that he self-treats with ibuprofen and antacids. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A positive guaiac test indicates gastrointestinal bleeding, likely related to ibuprofen use, which can cause fatigue and dizziness due to anemia. This finding requires immediate reporting to address potential bleeding and prevent further complications.