Care Hope College RN HESI Pharmacology

Extract:

Question 1 of 5

A client with benign prostatic hyperplasia has been prescribed tamsulosin. What should the nurse do to monitor for an adverse reaction?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: This question is identical to Question 29. Tamsulosin can cause hypotension (
A), necessitating blood pressure monitoring. Urine output (
B), bladder scans (
C), and weights (
D) don’t address adverse effects. Note: Duplicate question; consider removing.

Question 2 of 5

A client in the surgical recovery area asks the nurse to bring the largest possible dose of pain medication available. Which action should the nurse implement first?

A. Determine when the last dose was administered. B. Review the history for past use of recreational drugs. C. Ask the client to rate the current level of pain using a pain scale. D. Encourage the client to use diversional thoughts to manage pain.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client’s pain level using a pain scale (
C) is the first step to quantify pain and guide appropriate dosing. Determining the last dose (
A) and reviewing drug history (
B) are secondary. Diversional thoughts (
D) are a non-pharmacological adjunct, not the priority.

Question 3 of 5

After taking orlistat for one week, a female patient tells the home health nurse that she is experiencing increasingly frequent oily stools and gas. What action should the nurse take?

A. Ask the patient to describe her dietary intake history for the last several days. B. Advise the patient to stop taking the drug and contact her healthcare provider. C. Instruct the patient to increase her intake of saturated fats over the next week. D. Obtain a stool specimen to evaluate for occult blood and fat content.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Orlistat inhibits fat absorption, causing oily stools and gas if dietary fat is high. Assessing dietary intake (
A) identifies the cause. Stopping the drug (
B) is premature. Increasing fats (
C) worsens symptoms. Stool testing (
D) is unnecessary for known side effects.

Question 4 of 5

A client is receiving intravenous vancomycin, and the nurse plans to draw blood for a peak and trough to determine the serum level of the drug. Which collection times would provide the best determination of these levels?

A. One hour after completion of the IV dose and one hour before the next administration of the medication. B. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and two hours before the next administration of the medication. C. Thirty minutes into the administration of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication. D. Immediately after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: This question is identical to Question 30. Peak vancomycin levels are drawn 1 hour post-infusion, troughs 1 hour pre-dose (
A). Other timings (B, C,
D) miss accurate concentrations. Note: Duplicate question; consider removing.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse administers naloxone to a patient with opioid-induced respiratory depression. An hour later, the nurse finds the patient has a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation of 75%, and is unresponsive. What action should the nurse take?

A. Administer a second dose of naloxone. B. Prepare to assist with chest tube insertion. C. Determine Glasgow Coma Scale score. D. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Severe respiratory depression (4 breaths/min), hypoxia (75% SpO₂), and unresponsiveness require immediate CPR (
D) to restore circulation/oxygenation. A second naloxone dose (
A) may be needed but is secondary. Chest tubes (
B) are irrelevant. Glasgow scoring (
C) delays critical intervention.

Care Hope College RN HESI Pharmacology | Nurselytic

Nurselytic

HESI RN

HESI RN