HESI RN Med Surg Exam 2 | Nurselytic

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HESI RN Med Surg Exam 2 Questions

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Question 1 of 5

A client who takes daily supplemental iron tablets for iron deficiency anemia reports feeling increasingly fatigued. Which laboratory value should the nurse review?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a complete blood count assesses hemoglobin and hematocrit, indicating anemia severity.
Choice A is unrelated to anemia.
Choice B is not directly relevant.
Choice D assesses liver function, not anemia.

Question 2 of 5

Four days following an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, the client is exhibiting edema of both lower extremities, and pedal pulses are not palpable. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a Doppler assesses blood flow, critical for detecting complications like thrombosis.
Choice B is secondary.
Choice C is unrelated to pulses.
Choice D addresses edema but not pulses.

Question 3 of 5

A client receives a prescription for 2 liters of lactated Ringer's IV to be infused over 12 hours. The IV administration set delivers 20 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse regulate the infusion?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (56 gtt/min). Calculation: 2000 mL ÷ 12 hr = 166.67 mL/hr; 166.67 mL/hr × 20 gtt/mL = 3333.4 gtt/hr; 3333.4 gtt/hr ÷ 60 min/hr = 55.56 gtt/min, rounded to 56 gtt/min. This ensures accurate IV infusion.

Question 4 of 5

During a routine eye examination, an older client reports decreased peripheral vision and is found to have elevated intraocular pressures. Ophthalmic drops are prescribed for primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG). Which intervention(s) should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: B,D,E

Rationale: The correct answers are B, D, and E because lifelong eye drop use (
B) manages glaucoma, applying pressure to the inner eye corner (
D) minimizes systemic absorption, and aseptic administration (E) prevents infections.
Choice A is incorrect as drops control pressure, not restore vision.
Choice C is unrelated to glaucoma.

Question 5 of 5

A client presents with the onset of a severe headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, and a petechial rash on arms and legs. The nurse recognizes the client is exhibiting symptoms of which condition?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, and petechial rash are classic for meningococcal meningitis.
Choice A lacks rash and rigidity.
Choice C may have rash but not rigidity.
Choice D does not include rash or rigidity.

Similar Questions

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A client who works at a computer most of the working day comes to the clinic reporting pain in both hands that causes the client to awake during the night. Which action should the nurse implement to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome?
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) and hypertension who arrived at the clinic for a scheduled visit. Which finding should the nurse recognize as a possible complication?
A client who had a C-5 spinal cord injury 2 years ago is admitted to the emergency department (ED) with the diagnosis of autonomic dysreflexia secondary to a full bladder. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect this client to exhibit?

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