HESI RN
Wgu RN HESI Pharmacology Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client who is taking an oral contraceptive receives a new prescription for erythromycin. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Erythromycin may reduce oral contraceptive efficacy by altering metabolism. Additional contraception prevents pregnancy. Stopping contraceptives, spacing doses, or avoiding sunlight are not necessary.
Question 2 of 5
A client receives a prescription for dextrose 5% in water 500 mL IV to be infused over 4 hours. The IV administration set delivers 15 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse regulate the infusion? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.)
Correct Answer: 31
Rationale: Calculate: (500 mL ÷ 240 min) × 15 gtt/mL = 31.25 gtt/min, rounded to 31 gtt/min. This ensures the correct infusion rate for the dextrose solution.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse administers naloxone to a client with opioid-induced respiratory depression. One hour later, nursing assessment reveals that the client has a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation of 75%, and is unable to be aroused. Which action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Persistent respiratory depression (4 breaths/min, 75% saturation) indicates ongoing opioid toxicity. Naloxone’s short half-life may require a second dose to reverse opioid effects. Chest tubes, GCS, or CPR do not address the opioid-related cause.
Question 4 of 5
A client is receiving metronidazole for Clostridium difficile pseudomembranous colitis. Which information should the nurse include in this client's medication teaching plan?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Metronidazole with alcohol causes a disulfiram-like reaction (flushing, nausea). Avoiding alcohol during and 48 hours post-treatment is critical. Refrigeration, specific water intake, or post-meal dosing are not required.
Question 5 of 5
A client is admitted for observation with reports of progressively increasing fatigue over the past month and a brief episode of dizziness that occurred today. The client has a history of heartburn and indigestion that is self-treated with ibuprofen and antacids. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider? Reference Range: Guaiac stool [negative] Hemoglobin [14 to 18 g/dL (140 to 180 g/L)] Hematocrit [42% to 52% (0.42 to 0.52 volume fraction)] Gastric Acid pH [1.5 to 3.5]
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Positive guaiac indicates occult blood, suggesting GI bleeding possibly from ibuprofen. This requires immediate reporting given fatigue and dizziness. Normal hematocrit, gastric pH, and mild anemia are less urgent.