HESI RN
Monroe College RN HESI Maternity Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client who is at 10-weeks gestation calls the clinic because she has been vomiting for the past 24 hours. The nurse determines that the client has no fever. What instruction should the nurse give to this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best course of action in this situation is for the woman to come to the clinic to be seen by a healthcare provider. Prolonged vomiting can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which can be harmful to both the mother and the fetus.
Question 2 of 5
A client is admitted to the postpartum unit and tells the nurse she had rheumatic fever as a child, which resulted in some “heart damageâ€. The nurse knows that this client is at particular risk for developing heart failure during the immediate postpartum period. Based on this client's history, which nursing problem has the highest priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fluid volume excess is the highest priority for a client with a history of rheumatic fever and heart damage. Rheumatic heart disease can result in impaired heart function, making it difficult for the heart to handle increased fluid volumes that occur during pregnancy and the postpartum period.
Question 3 of 5
During the newborn admission assessment, the nurse palpates the newborn's scrotum and does not feel the testicles. Which assessment technique should the nurse perform next to verify the absence of testes?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: If a testis is not readily identified, a finger sweep should be performed from the anterior iliac crest along the inguinal canal while palpating the scrotum. This is the correct technique to verify the absence of testes.
Question 4 of 5
Which type of anesthesia, when used with a laboring client, results in a loss of sensation confined to the vagina and perineum?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A pudendal block is a type of anesthesia that results in a loss of sensation confined to the vagina and perineum. It's often used during the second stage of labor or for episiotomy repair.
Question 5 of 5
The healthcare provider prescribes magnesium sulfate 4 grams intravenously (IV) to be infused over 20 minutes for a client with preeclampsia. The IV bag contains magnesium sulfate 20 grams in dextrose 5% in water 500 mL. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?
Correct Answer: 300 mL/hour
Rationale: Calculate the volume for 4 grams: 4 grams ÷ 20 grams × 500 mL = 100 mL. Infuse over 20 minutes: 100 mL ÷ 20 minutes × 60 minutes/hour = 300 mL/hour.