HESI RN Med Surg Exam 2 | Nurselytic

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HESI RN Med Surg Exam 2 Questions

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Question 1 of 5

A client who had a C-5 spinal cord injury 2 years ago is admitted to the emergency department (ED) with the diagnosis of autonomic dysreflexia secondary to a full bladder. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect this client to exhibit?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because autonomic dysreflexia causes hypertension, diaphoresis, and headache due to stimuli like a full bladder.
Choice A is opposite (hypotension).
Choice B suggests infection, not dysreflexia.
Choice D is unrelated.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse has conducted a cancer prevention community education program. In evaluating the participants' understanding of carcinogens, which statement indicates an accurate understanding?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B for the same reasons as Question 20: carcinogens alter DNA, causing cancer.
Choice A misstates cancer spread.
Choice C is incorrect about cancerous cells.
Choice D overstates unavoidable exposure.

Question 3 of 5

A client with chronic kidney disease on peritoneal dialysis exhibits redness, tenderness, and drainage around the catheter site on the abdominal wall. While planning care, the nurse is most concerned about preventing which complication related to these findings?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because peritonitis, a severe infection, can result from catheter site infections and is life-threatening.
Choice A is unrelated to catheter issues.
Choice B is a dialysis complication but not directly linked to infection.
Choice C is a concern but less severe than peritonitis.

Question 4 of 5

Which nursing problem should be selected for a client who is receiving thrombolytic infusions for treatment of an acute myocardial infarction (AMI)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because thrombolytics increase bleeding risk, making injury prevention critical.
Choice A is less common.
Choice B is secondary to immediate risks.
Choice D is relevant but not the priority.

Question 5 of 5

A client receives a prescription for 2 liters of lactated Ringer's IV to be infused over 12 hours. The IV administration set delivers 20 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse regulate the infusion?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (56 gtt/min). Calculation: 2000 mL ÷ 12 hr = 166.67 mL/hr; 166.67 mL/hr × 20 gtt/mL = 3333.4 gtt/hr; 3333.4 gtt/hr ÷ 60 min/hr = 55.56 gtt/min, rounded to 56 gtt/min. This ensures accurate IV infusion.

Similar Questions

An adult client newly diagnosed with left ventricular dysfunction is admitted to the hospital with fine rales and wheezing. When assessing this client, which additional finding is the nurse likely to obtain?
After teaching a client newly diagnosed with cholecystitis about recommended diet changes, the nurse evaluates the client's learning. Which food choices eliminated by the client indicate to the nurse that teaching has been successful?
During a home visit, the nurse assesses the skin of a client with eczema who reports that an exacerbation of symptoms has occurred during the last week. Which information is most useful in determining the possible cause of the symptoms?
The nurse has conducted a cancer prevention community education program. In evaluating the participants' understanding of carcinogens, which statement indicates an accurate understanding?
During a routine eye examination, an older client reports decreased peripheral vision and is found to have elevated intraocular pressures. Ophthalmic drops are prescribed for primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG). Which intervention(s) should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? Select all that apply.

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