ATI LPN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank
Chapter 39 : Antibiotics Part 2 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is receiving aminoglycoside therapy and will be receiving a beta-lactam antibiotic as well. The patient asks why two antibiotics have been ordered. What is the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Aminoglycosides are often used in combination with other antibiotics, such as beta-lactams or vancomycin, in the treatment of various infections because the combined effect of the two antibiotics is greater than that of either drug alone.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is reviewing the medication orders for a patient who will be receiving aminoglycoside therapy. Which other medication or medication class, if ordered, would be a potential interaction concern?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Concurrent use of aminoglycosides with loop diuretics increases the risk for ototoxicity. The other drugs and drug classes do not cause interactions.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse checks the patient's laboratory work prior to administering a dose of vancomycin and finds that the trough vancomycin level is 15 mcg/mL. What will the nurse do next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Optimal blood levels of vancomycin are a trough level of 10 to 20 mcg/mL. Measurement of peak levels is no longer routinely recommended, and only trough levels are commonly monitored. Because of the increase in resistant organisms, many clinicians use a trough level of 15 to 20 mcg/mL as their goal.
Question 4 of 5
A patient has been diagnosed with carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE). The nurse expects to see orders for which drug?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Colistimethate sodium (Coly-Mycin), commonly referred to as colistin, is now being used again, often as one of the only drugs available to treat CRE. The other options are incorrect.
Question 5 of 5
A 79-year-old patient is receiving a quinolone as treatment for a complicated incision infection. The nurse will monitor for which adverse effect that is associated with these drugs?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A black box warning is required by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for all quinolones because of the increased risk for tendonitis and tendon rupture with use of the drugs. This effect is more common in elderly patients, patients with renal failure, and those receiving concurrent glucocorticoid therapy (e.g., prednisone). The other options are not common adverse effects.