While a client is on total parenteral nutrition, which of the following values should the nurse monitor closely?

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Question 1 of 9

While a client is on total parenteral nutrition, which of the following values should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Glucose should be monitored closely when a client is on total parenteral nutrition due to the high glucose concentration in the solutions. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Calcium and magnesium are usually monitored to assess electrolyte imbalances, while cholesterol levels are not directly impacted by total parenteral nutrition. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are not the primary values that need close monitoring during total parenteral nutrition.

Question 2 of 9

A client who is experiencing infertility says to the nurse, 'I feel I will be incomplete as a man/woman if I cannot have a child.' Which of the following nursing diagnoses is likely to be appropriate for this client?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis for this client is 'Body Image Disturbance.' The client's statement reflects concerns about self-identity and feeling incomplete due to infertility, which aligns with Body Image Disturbance. The statement does not directly indicate a risk for self-harm, so 'Risk for Self-Harm' is not the correct choice. 'Ineffective Role Performance' is not the best option as it does not address the client's primary concern regarding self-image. While 'Powerlessness' could be appropriate if the client expressed feelings of powerlessness related to infertility, it is not the most suitable diagnosis based on the given statement.

Question 3 of 9

A client states, "I eat a well-balanced diet. I do not smoke. I exercise regularly, and I have a yearly checkup with my physician. What else can I do to help prevent cancer?"? The nurse should respond with which of the following statements?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: All of the choices are methods of preventing cancer. Sleep is important in maintaining homeostasis, which helps the body respond to disease. Monthly breast examination can indicate cancer or fibrocystic disease. Stress can have a physiological response in the body that decreases the immune response and increases the risk of disease. Therefore, all the options provided are important in cancer prevention, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Option A is crucial for overall health and immune function, option B aids in early detection, and option C is vital as chronic stress can weaken the immune system.

Question 4 of 9

Following the change of shift report, when can or should the nurse's plan be altered or modified during the shift?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'when needs change.' It is crucial for the nurse to remain adaptable and adjust the plan promptly when the patient's needs or condition change. Choice A, 'halfway through the shift,' may not align with the timing of when needs actually change, making it less optimal for plan modifications. Choice B, 'at the end of the shift before the nurse reports off,' is too late to address evolving needs effectively. Choice D, 'after the top-priority tasks have been completed,' limits the nurse's ability to respond promptly to changing priorities, as needs may shift before all top-priority tasks are finished.

Question 5 of 9

An assessment of the skull of a normal 10-month-old baby should identify which of the following?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the closure of the anterior fontanel. By 10 months of age, the anterior fontanel should be closed. The posterior fontanel should actually close by the age of 2 months, making choice A incorrect. Overlap of cranial bones is not a typical finding in a normal 10-month-old baby's skull, so choice C is incorrect. Ossification of the sutures is an ongoing process in skull development and should not be a definitive indicator at this age, making choice D incorrect.

Question 6 of 9

While assisting with data collection regarding the neurological system, the nurse asks the client to puff out both cheeks. Which cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facial. Assessment of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) involves noting mobility and symmetry as the client performs various facial movements, including puffing out the cheeks. Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and cranial nerve X (vagus nerve) are tested together for different functions. The abducens, oculomotor, and trochlear nerves are assessed together for eye movements and pupil reactions, not cheek puffing.

Question 7 of 9

How does the family carry out its health care functions?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Families play a crucial role in providing preventive health care to their members at home. This includes activities such as promoting healthy lifestyles, ensuring vaccinations, scheduling regular check-ups, and intervening early when health issues arise. Therefore, the correct answer is that the family provides preventive health care to its members at home. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because families are expected to actively engage in preventive health care practices rather than providing very little preventive care, solely paying for health services, or making hospitalization decisions. The focus is on the proactive role of families in maintaining the health of their members.

Question 8 of 9

When assessing the health-related physical fitness of a client as part of a health assessment, what aspect should be the focus?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When assessing the health-related physical fitness of a client, the primary focus should be on identifying risk factors that could predispose the client to illness or injury. Risk factors are crucial in determining an individual's overall health status and potential health outcomes. While agility, speed, and body composition are important components of physical fitness assessments, they are not the primary focus when assessing health-related physical fitness from a holistic perspective. Therefore, the correct choice is 'risk factors.'

Question 9 of 9

A client with dumping syndrome should..........................while a client with GERD should..........................

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: For a client with dumping syndrome, lying down 1 hour after eating helps reduce symptoms by slowing down the movement of food through the digestive tract, aiding in symptom management. This position assists in symptom management for dumping syndrome. Conversely, for a client with GERD, sitting up at least 30 minutes after eating can help prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus, reducing reflux symptoms. This upright position is beneficial for managing GERD. Choice A is incorrect because sitting up is recommended for GERD, not dumping syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests sitting up for both conditions, which is not appropriate. Choice D is incorrect as lying down after meals is not recommended for GERD; it can worsen symptoms by promoting acid reflux.

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