NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
While a client is on total parenteral nutrition, which of the following values should the nurse monitor closely?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Glucose should be monitored closely when a client is on total parenteral nutrition due to the high glucose concentration in the solutions. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Calcium and magnesium are usually monitored to assess electrolyte imbalances, while cholesterol levels are not directly impacted by total parenteral nutrition.
Therefore, choices A, B, and D are not the primary values that need close monitoring during total parenteral nutrition.
Question 2 of 5
A client with dumping syndrome should..........................while a client with GERD should..........................
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: For a client with dumping syndrome, lying down 1 hour after eating helps reduce symptoms by slowing down the movement of food through the digestive tract, aiding in symptom management. This position assists in symptom management for dumping syndrome. Conversely, for a client with GERD, sitting up at least 30 minutes after eating can help prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus, reducing reflux symptoms. This upright position is beneficial for managing GERD.
Choice A is incorrect because sitting up is recommended for GERD, not dumping syndrome.
Choice C is incorrect as it suggests sitting up for both conditions, which is not appropriate.
Choice D is incorrect as lying down after meals is not recommended for GERD; it can worsen symptoms by promoting acid reflux.
Question 3 of 5
In conducting a health screening for 12-month-old children, the nurse expects them to have been immunized against which of the following diseases?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: By 12 months of age, children should have received vaccines for diphtheria, pertussis, polio, and tetanus (DTaP and IPV). The correct answer is B as it includes these vaccines that are typically administered in the first year of life. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccination usually begins at 12 months of age but is not expected to be completed by this time.
Choices A and C are incorrect as they include diseases that are not part of the routine immunization schedule for a 12-month-old child.
Question 4 of 5
During the health screening of an adolescent, which finding by the nurse requires further teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'The client states she is currently taking birth control pills.' This finding requires further teaching because being on birth control pills does not protect against sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), and the adolescent should be educated on the importance of using barrier methods (e.g., condoms) for STD prevention.
Choices A, C, and D are not concerning.
Choice A is a normal developmental milestone in adolescence.
Choice C could indicate a positive lifestyle change, and choice D is a common complaint during this stage of development.
Question 5 of 5
As part of a routine health screening, the nurse notes the play of a 2-year-old child. Which of the following is an example of age-appropriate play at this age?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'says 'Mine!' when playing with toys.' At the age of 2, children are in the stage of parallel play and are possessive of their belongings, hence saying 'Mine!' is an age-appropriate behavior. Building towers with blocks (choice
A) involves more advanced motor skills and cognitive abilities, which are beyond what most 2-year-olds can do. Trying to color within the lines (choice
B) requires fine motor skills that are typically not developed at age 2. Jumping rope (choice
D) involves coordination and balance that are beyond the capabilities of a 2-year-old child.