NCLEX-PN
Best NCLEX Next Gen Prep Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following methods of contraception is able to reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the vaginal sponge. The vaginal sponge is a barrier method of contraception that, when used with foam or jelly contraception, reduces the transmission of HIV and other STDs, as well as reducing the risk of pregnancy. Intrauterine devices (IUDs), Norplant, and oral contraceptives can prevent pregnancy but not the transmission of HIV and STDs. Clients using the contraceptive methods in Choices A, B, and C should be counseled to use a chemical or barrier contraceptive to decrease the transmission of HIV or STDs.
Question 2 of 9
During a report from an ER nurse about a client, the nurse identifies a statement that requires additional follow-up. Which of the following statements needs further clarification?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer requires further follow-up as the nurse needs to know the duration and dosage of aspirin since it can impact the patient's bleeding risk. Choice B does not require immediate follow-up as not taking antacids for three days is not critical. Choice C indicates a necessary decision made by the client to stop ibuprofen after developing gastric ulcers, hence no immediate follow-up is needed. Choice D provides important information, but the priority is to address the lack of specificity regarding the client's aspirin use, which is crucial for assessing bleeding risk and potential interactions.
Question 3 of 9
A female client is seen in the clinic for a gynecological examination. The nurse begins collecting subjective data. Which topic does the nurse ask the client about first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should begin by asking the client about her menstrual history as it is usually nonthreatening. This information can provide insights into the client's reproductive health and any irregularities. Menstrual history is a common starting point for gynecological assessments and can help in understanding the client's overall health status. Asking about sexual history may be more sensitive and personal, not always appropriate to start with. Obstetrical history pertains to pregnancies and may not be relevant if the client has not been pregnant. Inquiring about the presence of vaginal drainage is important but is usually addressed after gathering more general information about the client's health.
Question 4 of 9
When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Semen analysis is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a couple experiencing infertility. It is the least invasive of the listed tests, and since male factor infertility contributes to around 35% of cases, assessing semen parameters early is crucial. Hysterosalpingography is a radiographic test to evaluate tubal patency and uterine cavity abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy assesses endometrial receptivity post-ovulation. Transvaginal ultrasound is mainly used in infertility treatment to monitor follicle development, oocyte maturity, and luteal phase defects. Choices A, C, and D are more invasive, require specialized expertise, and are costlier. If semen analysis yields normal results, further tests may be warranted.
Question 5 of 9
A male client is learning about testicular self-examination (TSE) from a nurse. Which statement should the nurse make to the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to make to the client is 'If you notice an enlarged testicle or a lump, you need to notify the physician.' During a shower or bath is the best time to examine the testes because warm temperatures make the testes hang lower in the scrotum. The testes should feel round and smooth, without lumps. Self-examination should be performed monthly to detect any abnormalities early. The physician needs to be notified immediately if any abnormal findings are noticed. Choice A is incorrect because the best time for TSE is during or after a warm shower or bath, not just before. Choice C is incorrect as the testicle should feel round, smooth, and without lumps, not egg-shaped and lumpy. Choice D is incorrect as monthly self-examinations are recommended, not every 2 months.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' If an 11-12-month-old child is unable to pull to a standing position, it can indicate a risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By 15 months of age, children should be walking, so delayed standing can be a red flag. The Trendelenburg sign is associated with gluteus medius muscle weakness, not hip dysplasia, making choice C incorrect. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital hip subluxation or dislocation, not developmental dysplasia, making choice D incorrect.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is assessing the dental status of an 18-month-old child. How many teeth should the nurse expect to examine?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An 18-month-old child should have approximately 12 teeth. Children typically start getting teeth around 6 months of age. By subtracting 6 from the number of months in the child's age, you can calculate the expected number of teeth. For an 18-month-old child, 18 - 6 = 12 teeth. Therefore, the correct answer is 12 teeth. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the expected dental development in an 18-month-old child.
Question 8 of 9
Following a classic cholecystectomy resection for multiple stones, the PACU nurse observes serosanguinous drainage on the dressing. The most appropriate intervention is to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of a classic cholecystectomy resection, serosanguinous drainage is an expected finding postoperatively due to the nature of the surgery. The appropriate intervention in this situation is to reinforce the dressing. Changing the dressing prematurely can increase the risk of introducing infection. Applying an abdominal binder is not recommended as it can obstruct the visualization of the dressing and the underlying wound, making it difficult to monitor for any complications or changes in drainage. Notifying the physician may be necessary if there are significant changes in the drainage characteristics or other concerning signs, but the immediate action should be to reinforce the dressing to maintain a clean and secure environment for wound healing.
Question 9 of 9
All of the following are clinical manifestations indicating male climacteric except:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Male climacteric, also known as andropause, is a stage in a man's life characterized by a decline in testosterone levels and various physical and emotional changes. While men may experience symptoms like hot flashes, headaches, and heart palpitations during male climacteric, they do not typically lose their reproductive ability. Although fertility may decrease with age due to reduced testosterone production, men do not entirely lose the ability to reproduce. Therefore, the correct answer is 'loss of reproductive ability.' Choices A, C, and D are symptoms that can be associated with male climacteric, making them incorrect answers.