NCLEX-PN
Nclex Questions Management of Care Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is not an indication for pelvic ultrasonography?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pelvic ultrasonography is commonly used to assess various conditions. Choices A, B, and D are all valid reasons for performing pelvic ultrasonography. Measuring uterine size helps evaluate conditions like fibroids, while detecting multiple pregnancies is essential for prenatal care. Furthermore, identifying foreign bodies can aid in diagnosing certain conditions. However, assessing renal size is typically not a primary reason for pelvic ultrasonography, making choice C the correct answer.
Question 2 of 9
What action should the emergency triage nurse take upon receiving the history that a client has a severe cough, fever, night sweats, and body wasting?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the emergency triage nurse to take upon receiving the history that a client has a severe cough, fever, night sweats, and body wasting is to seclude the client from other clients and visitors. These symptoms are suggestive of tuberculosis, a highly infectious disease. By secluding the client, the nurse can prevent the potential spread of the infection to others. Donning personal protective equipment, including gown, gloves, and a mask, is crucial when providing care to the client, but the immediate priority is to prevent the spread of infection by isolating the client. Placing the client in isolation until further assessment is completed ensures that the client is kept away from others until a proper diagnosis and treatment plan can be established, reducing the risk of transmission. Performing no intervention until test results confirm a diagnosis is inappropriate as immediate isolation is necessary in suspected cases of highly infectious diseases like tuberculosis.
Question 3 of 9
A client is diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following antiviral drug classes are used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: All of the provided choices are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as tenofovir and emtricitabine, work by interfering with the virus's ability to replicate. Protease inhibitors, like atazanavir and darunavir, block an enzyme that HIV needs to make copies of itself. HIV fusion inhibitors, for instance, enfuvirtide, prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, 'all of the above' is the correct answer as all the listed drug classes are commonly used in managing HIV infections. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of antiretroviral therapy for HIV, targeting different stages of the virus's life cycle. The combination of drugs from these classes is often recommended to effectively control HIV replication and reduce viral load.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following symptoms is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia in the client with a spinal cord injury?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by a sudden onset of symptoms due to an overactive autonomic nervous system. Hypotension is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia; instead, hypertension is a hallmark sign. Therefore, hypotension is the correct answer. Flushed face, sudden onset of headache, and nasal congestion are classic symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia caused by a noxious stimulus below the level of the spinal cord injury. These symptoms result from the body's attempt to regulate blood pressure when the normal feedback loop is interrupted.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse provides a postoperative client with an analgesic medication and darkens the room before the client goes to sleep for the night. The nurse's actions:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse's actions of providing an analgesic medication and darkening the room aim to decrease stimuli from the cerebral cortex. Reduction of environmental stimuli, especially light and noise, from the cerebral cortex, which is an area of arousal, facilitates sleep. By decreasing input to this area, the client is more likely to fall asleep and stay asleep. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the scenario does not involve stimulating hormonal changes, influencing the circadian rhythm, or alerting the hypothalamus.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is educating a teenage female about preventing the transmission of genital herpes. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Genital herpes can be transmitted through oral, genital, and anal sex. It is crucial to educate the patient that the infection can be transmitted via intercourse even when asymptomatic to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as sitting on toilet seats without protection does not transmit genital herpes. Choice B is incorrect because oral sex can transmit the virus. Choice D is also incorrect as drinking fluids after sex does not prevent the transmission of genital herpes.
Question 7 of 9
What instruction should a client who is about to undergo pelvic ultrasonography be given by a healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client about to undergo pelvic ultrasonography is to 'Drink plenty of water.' A full bladder is required to serve as a landmark to define pelvic organs during the procedure. It is important to ensure the bladder is adequately filled. 'Urinate prior to the test' (Choice A) would not be appropriate as a full bladder is needed for better visualization. 'Have someone drive you home' (Choice B) is unnecessary as no sedation is given during the procedure, so the client can drive home on their own. 'Do not drink after midnight' (Choice C) is unrelated and not necessary for a pelvic ultrasonography examination.
Question 8 of 9
The healthcare professional seeks to assess the renal function of an elderly client who is about to receive a nephrotoxic medication. Which of the following labs provides the best indicator for renal function?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of an elderly client, assessing renal function before administering a nephrotoxic medication is crucial. While urinalysis and blood urea nitrogen provide valuable information on hydration status and overall health clues, they are not specific indicators of renal function. The chemistry of electrolytes may show abnormalities in renal failure, but it does not directly measure the kidneys' ability to eliminate waste. Creatinine clearance, on the other hand, is considered the best indicator for renal function in the elderly. This test accounts for decreases in lean body mass that can affect blood creatinine levels and is widely used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate, reflecting the kidneys' filtration capability. Therefore, creatinine clearance is the most appropriate lab test to assess renal function in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse discharge planner is preparing a client for discharge from an acute care setting. The nurse assesses that skilled home care services are clinically indicated. This assessment is based on all of the following indicators except:
Correct Answer: V
Rationale: Family availability to provide care and assistance is not an indicator for skilled home care services. In fact, the nurse might see an opportunity for family education to meet the client's needs so that less community support is needed. This should be discussed and negotiated with the family. Frequent hospital readmissions indicate that the client has not been able to manage either due to condition instability or lack of care needs being met, which is a red flag for home care services to monitor and meet those needs appropriately. A Foley catheter requires home health care due to infection potential and care requirements. IV antibiotics also necessitate home care for maintaining line patency and assessing the site.