NCLEX-PN
Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which microorganism is most commonly associated with gastritis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: H. pylori is the most common microorganism associated with gastritis, present in over 80% of cases. While syphilis, cytomegalovirus, and mycobacterium can also cause gastritis, they are much less prevalent compared to H. pylori. Therefore, the correct answer is H. pylori.
Question 2 of 9
A patient has a history of cardiac arrhythmia. A nurse has been ordered to give 2 units of blood to this patient. The nurse should take which of the following actions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In patients with a history of cardiac arrhythmia, warming the blood before transfusion can help prevent additional arrhythmias. Cold blood can lead to arrhythmias and should be avoided. Administering pain medication (Choice A) is not directly related to the safe administration of blood. Informing the patient's family in person (Choice B) is important but not the immediate action required for safe transfusion. Decreasing the temperature of the blood to be given (Choice C) would increase the risk of cardiac arrhythmia, contrary to the goal of ensuring patient safety.
Question 3 of 9
In Parkinson's disease, a client's difficulty in performing voluntary movements is known as:
Correct Answer: C.
Rationale: In Parkinson's disease, the client's difficulty in performing voluntary movements is termed dyskinesia. Dyskinesia refers to the impairment of the ability to execute voluntary muscle movements. Akinesia, on the other hand, refers to the absence or lack of voluntary movement. Chorea is characterized by involuntary, rapid, irregular movements. Dystonia involves sustained muscle contractions resulting in abnormal postures or twisting movements. Therefore, dyskinesia is the specific term used for the described difficulty in Parkinson's disease.
Question 4 of 9
What is the next step for a 64-year-old male diagnosed with COPD and CHF who shows a 10 lbs increase in total body weight over the last few days?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a patient with COPD and CHF experiencing a sudden increase in total body weight, the priority is to check the intake and output on the patient's flow sheet to evaluate fluid balance. This assessment helps determine if the weight gain is due to fluid retention, which can exacerbate CHF. Contacting the physician may be necessary based on the intake and output findings. While encouraging ambulation is beneficial for circulation, it may not address the root cause of fluid retention. Checking vitals every 2 hours is important for monitoring stability but may not pinpoint the reason behind the weight gain.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following needs immediate medical attention and emergency intervention? The client who:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is indicative of a tension pneumothorax, which is considered a medical emergency. The respiratory system is severely compromised, and venous return to the heart is affected. The mediastinal shift is to the unaffected side, indicating a critical situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration. This condition can rapidly progress to a life-threatening state, necessitating prompt medical attention. Choices A, B, and D do not present with life-threatening conditions requiring emergency intervention. Choice A mentions symptoms of pleurisy, which may be painful but not immediately life-threatening. Choice B describes symptoms of bronchitis, which may require medical attention but not of an emergent nature. Choice D reflects a common complaint in asthma but does not suggest an immediate life-threatening situation unless severe respiratory distress is present.
Question 6 of 9
When caring for a client with a possible diagnosis of placenta previa, which of the following admission procedures should the nurse omit?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'enema.' Administering an enema to a client with placenta previa can dislodge the placenta, leading to an increased risk of bleeding and complications. It is crucial to avoid any interventions that may disrupt the placenta's positioning. Collecting urine and blood specimens are necessary for diagnostic purposes and monitoring, while a perineal shave is a routine procedure that does not pose a risk to the client with placenta previa.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is returning phone calls in a pediatric clinic. Which of the following reports most requires the nurse's immediate attention and phone call?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 8-year-old boy with vomiting, slower movements, and a history of an atrioventricular shunt placement. This report requires immediate attention because the symptoms could indicate a blocked shunt, which is a serious medical condition needing urgent evaluation and intervention. Slower movements in the context of an atrioventricular shunt history could suggest increased intracranial pressure. The other choices involve less urgent issues: choice B describes post-exercise pain, choice C presents with a low-grade fever and headache that could be due to a mild infection, and choice D reports itching associated with a cast, which is a common issue and less critical compared to a potentially blocked shunt.
Question 8 of 9
Paula is a 32-year-old woman seeking evaluation and treatment for major depressive symptoms. A major nursing priority during the assessment process includes which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to consider the possibility of self-harm during the assessment process. This is crucial because unless the client is first assessed for self-harm or suicide potential, the necessary degree of vigilance in the client's environment may not be observed. While understanding the meaning of current stressors is important for treatment planning, ensuring the client's safety takes precedence. Motivation to participate in treatment and the presence of alcohol or other drug use are also important aspects to assess but ensuring the client's safety is the top priority in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
A client has a 10% dextrose in water IV solution running. He is scheduled to receive his antiepileptic drug, phenytoin (Dilantin), at this time. The nurse knows that the phenytoin:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions as they will precipitate when mixed together. Therefore, it should not be piggybacked into the D10W solution or given through the same port. Instead, normal saline should be used to flush before and after administering phenytoin to prevent any interaction with the dextrose solution. Delaying the administration of an antiepileptic drug like phenytoin to maintain therapeutic blood levels is not recommended, so it should not be given after the D10W is finished or based on the medication port closest to the client. Choice A is incorrect because administering phenytoin after the D10W is finished is not the correct approach due to the incompatibility with dextrose solutions. Choice B is incorrect as the timing of phenytoin administration should not be based on the medication port closest to the client but on compatibility considerations. Choice C is incorrect as piggybacking phenytoin into the D10W solution is not advisable due to the incompatibility issue.