NCLEX-PN
Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the role of the incident report in risk management?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'To provide data for analysis by a risk manager to determine how future problems can be avoided.' Incident reports are a crucial tool for collecting information about incidents to analyze them and prevent similar issues in the future. They are not primarily used for liability protection or disciplining staff. Therefore, choices A and C are incorrect. Selecting 'All of the above' (choice D) is not accurate as incident reports serve a specific purpose related to data analysis and risk prevention, excluding liability protection and staff discipline.
Question 2 of 9
People living in poverty are most likely to obtain health care from:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: People living in poverty often face barriers to accessing regular healthcare services, leading them to seek care in Emergency Departments or urgent care centers. These facilities are more accessible and do not require appointments or insurance, making them a common choice for individuals with limited resources. Neighborhood clinics, while a good option, may not always be available or affordable for those in poverty. Specialists provide specialized care but usually require a referral from a primary care provider, which individuals in poverty may not have consistent access to. Therefore, Emergency Departments or urgent care centers are the most likely sources of healthcare for people living in poverty.
Question 3 of 9
What can happen if a restraint is attached to a side rail or other movable part of the bed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Attaching a restraint to a movable part of the bed can lead to client injury if that part of the bed is moved before releasing restraints. This could result in the client getting caught or trapped, possibly causing harm. Choices C and D are incorrect because attaching restraints to movable parts of the bed is not intended to help the client stay in bed or improve posture; rather, it poses a risk of injury. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential harm associated with using restraints on movable parts of the bed.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following lab values is associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is high HDL cholesterol. High HDL cholesterol levels are associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease because HDL helps remove LDL cholesterol from the arteries, reducing plaque buildup. Low HDL cholesterol (choice B) is actually associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. Low total cholesterol (choice C) or low triglycerides (choice D) are not indicators of a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease; in fact, extremely low total cholesterol levels may indicate other health issues.
Question 5 of 9
The client is being taught about the use of Rifampin for prophylaxis following exposure to meningitis. What change in bodily functions should the client be informed about?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rifampin has the unusual effect of turning body fluids an orange color. Soft contact lenses might become permanently stained. Clients should be taught about these side effects to avoid unnecessary concern. Option A is incorrect as Rifampin does not cause the urine to turn blue. Option B is incorrect as the client is not infectious to others due to taking Rifampin for prophylaxis. Option D is incorrect as Rifampin does not cause the skin to take on a crimson glow.
Question 6 of 9
What is the 24-hour day-night cycle known as?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is circadian rhythm. Circadian rhythm refers to the rhythmic repetition of patterns that occur approximately every 24 hours, regulating various biological processes related to the day-night cycle. Infradian rhythm, which is longer than 24 hours, and ultradian rhythm, which is shorter than 24 hours, are not the correct terms for the 24-hour cycle. Non-REM rhythm does not specifically relate to the 24-hour day-night cycle, making it an incorrect choice.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following neurological disorders is characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Huntington's chorea is a neurological disorder characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs, known as chorea. Epilepsy is characterized by seizures, not writhing, twisting movements. Parkinson's disease presents with tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia, not writhing, twisting movements. Multiple sclerosis affects the central nervous system but does not typically involve writhing, twisting movements. Therefore, the correct answer is Huntington's chorea as it specifically manifests with these characteristic movements.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following ethnic groups is at highest risk in the United States for pesticide-related injuries?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hispanic people are at the highest risk in the United States for pesticide-related injuries due to their significant representation among migrant workers in agricultural settings. Working in such environments exposes them to pesticides more frequently, thus elevating their risk compared to other ethnic groups. In contrast, Native American, Asian-Pacific, and Norwegian populations are not as commonly engaged in agricultural work involving pesticide exposure, which makes them less susceptible to pesticide-related injuries. Therefore, the correct answer is Hispanic.
Question 9 of 9
At what point in the nurse-client relationship should termination first be addressed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Termination in the nurse-client relationship should first be addressed in the orientation phase. This is because the client has a right to know the parameters of the relationship from the beginning. During the orientation phase, it is important to discuss if the relationship is time-limited, inform the client about the number of sessions, or explain that it is open-ended with the termination date to be negotiated later. Addressing termination in the orientation phase helps establish transparency and clear communication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because termination discussions should ideally start at the beginning of the relationship to set appropriate expectations.