NCLEX-PN
Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
The healthcare provider sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario of a needle puncture requiring HIV prophylaxis, the CDC recommends initiating treatment with two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, unless there is drug resistance. This regimen is preferred over other options such as a single protease inhibitor or two protease inhibitors due to its effectiveness and safety profile in this specific context. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors are commonly used in post-exposure prophylaxis due to their activity against HIV and lower risk of resistance development compared to other antiretroviral drug classes.
Question 2 of 5
When a client needs oxygen therapy, what is the highest flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 6 liters/minute. When a client needs oxygen therapy, the highest flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula is 6 liters/minute. Higher flow rates must be delivered by a mask. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they suggest flow rates that exceed what can be effectively delivered through a nasal cannula.
Question 3 of 5
What can happen if a restraint is attached to a side rail or other movable part of the bed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Attaching a restraint to a movable part of the bed can lead to client injury if that part of the bed is moved before releasing restraints. This could result in the client getting caught or trapped, possibly causing harm. Choices C and D are incorrect because attaching restraints to movable parts of the bed is not intended to help the client stay in bed or improve posture; rather, it poses a risk of injury. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential harm associated with using restraints on movable parts of the bed.
Question 4 of 5
All of the following are causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy except:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eclampsia. Eclampsia is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. This condition can cause seizures and/or coma but does not typically present with vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are abnormal conditions that can cause bleeding, particularly in the third trimester. Placenta previa (choice A) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to vaginal bleeding. Abruptio placentae (choice C) is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, causing vaginal bleeding. Uterine rupture (choice D) is a serious obstetrical emergency where the uterus tears during pregnancy or childbirth, resulting in severe bleeding.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following lab values is associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is high HDL cholesterol. High HDL cholesterol levels are associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease because HDL helps remove LDL cholesterol from the arteries, reducing plaque buildup. Low HDL cholesterol (choice B) is actually associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. Low total cholesterol (choice C) or low triglycerides (choice D) are not indicators of a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease; in fact, extremely low total cholesterol levels may indicate other health issues.
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