The nurse is teaching a client about communicable diseases and explains that a portal of entry is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'the respiratory system.' A portal of entry is the path through which a microorganism enters the body. In the case of communicable diseases, the respiratory system can serve as a portal of entry for pathogens such as viruses or bacteria. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A 'vector' is an organism that transmits disease, not the entry point for pathogens. Contaminated water or food can act as sources or reservoirs of disease-causing microorganisms, not portals of entry.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication specifically effective in treating herpes infections. It works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, shortening the duration of the infection. While Acyclovir can be used in HIV and AIDS patients to treat opportunistic viral infections, it is not a primary drug for managing HIV or AIDS itself. Candida is a type of fungus, and infections caused by Candida are treated with antifungal medications, not antivirals like Acyclovir. Therefore, the correct answer is herpes.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Brown-Séquard syndrome is indeed associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord, and it specifically results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord. This syndrome manifests as ipsilateral motor paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome mainly involves the loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, while sparing motor function and pain sensation. Central cord syndrome typically presents with more weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to central spinal cord damage. Cauda equina syndrome affects the nerve roots at the level of the conus medullaris, leading to symptoms like lower extremity weakness, numbness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Vomiting bile is not typically a sign of internal bleeding but is more commonly associated with issues in the gastrointestinal tract. Signs of internal bleeding include painful or swollen extremities, a tender, rigid abdomen, and bruising. Painful or swollen extremities can indicate bleeding from an extremity injury, a tender, rigid abdomen can signal abdominal bleeding, and bruising can result from blood vessel damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'C: vomiting bile,' as it is not a typical sign of internal bleeding.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to contact the healthcare provider. The prescription provided lacks crucial information such as the route of administration. Before administering any medication, the nurse must clarify any missing details with the provider, especially for a stat prescription that requires immediate administration. Drawing up or administering the medication without verifying the route of administration is unsafe and can lead to errors. Planning for the next shift nurse to administer the medication is not appropriate in this scenario as the stat order necessitates immediate action. Therefore, the best course of action is to contact the healthcare provider to obtain clarification on the prescription.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's heart rate and pulse oximetry during suctioning to assess the client's tolerance of the procedure. Oxygen desaturation to below 90% indicates hypoxemia. If hypoxia occurs during suctioning, the nurse must terminate the procedure and oxygenate the client with 100% oxygen to address the hypoxemia promptly and ensure the client's safety. Rechecking the pulse oximetry reading is important, but the priority is to address the hypoxemia by providing oxygen. Contacting the healthcare provider or respiratory therapist is not necessary at this time as the nurse can manage the hypoxemia with oxygenation. Oxygenating the client with 100% oxygen is the immediate action required in this situation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a client's risk for elimination impairment, family history is the least relevant factor to consider. Current medications can affect elimination functions through side effects, ambulation abilities can impact mobility to access toileting facilities, and hydration status directly influences urinary output and bowel function. Family history, although providing some context, does not have a direct impact on the client's current risk of elimination impairment.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The appropriate response is to acknowledge the client's wishes and communicate them to the physician for consideration. It is important to be culturally sensitive and respect the client's preferences. Ginkgo biloba has shown some benefits in treating dementia, so it is essential to involve the healthcare provider in the decision-making process. Choices A, B, and C are dismissive and fail to consider the client's perspective and cultural beliefs. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to engage in open communication and collaboration with clients to provide patient-centered care.