The nurse is preparing for a dressing change on a full thickness burn to the flank area. The orders include irrigating the wound with each dressing change. To irrigate the wound, what will the nurse use?

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Question 1 of 9

The nurse is preparing for a dressing change on a full thickness burn to the flank area. The orders include irrigating the wound with each dressing change. To irrigate the wound, what will the nurse use?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When irrigating a wound, especially in the case of a full-thickness burn, it is crucial to use a solution that is gentle and non-irritating to the tissues. Sterile saline is the preferred choice for wound irrigation as it is isotonic and does not cause additional damage to the already compromised tissue. Distilled water lacks the electrolytes present in saline, Betadine scrub is not used for irrigation due to its potential to be cytotoxic, and tap water may introduce contaminants and microorganisms to the wound.

Question 2 of 9

A child with newly diagnosed leukemia is receiving chemotherapy. Which would be included in his plan of care by the nurse?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to teach family and visitors handwashing techniques. Any client on chemotherapy should have good infection control measures in place, such as handwashing by all who they encounter. Placing the child in a negative pressure isolation room (Choice A) is not necessary unless specifically indicated for a certain condition. Administering prophylactic IV antibiotics (Choice B) may not be part of the standard care plan for a child with leukemia receiving chemotherapy. Avoiding high protein food intake (Choice C) is not directly related to infection control and may not be necessary unless there are specific dietary restrictions.

Question 3 of 9

What type of diet is appropriate for a client with chronic cirrhosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct diet for a client with chronic cirrhosis is high calorie, low protein. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired protein metabolism, making it essential to limit protein intake. High-calorie foods help meet the client's energy needs. Choice B (High protein, high calorie) is incorrect because high protein intake can worsen hepatic encephalopathy. Choice C (Low fat, low sodium) is not the most appropriate diet for cirrhosis as the focus should be on calories and protein. Choice D (High calorie, low sodium) does not address the need to restrict protein intake, which is crucial in cirrhosis.

Question 4 of 9

The charge nurse on a cardiac unit tells you a patient is exhibiting signs of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following would not indicate right-sided heart failure?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anxiety.' Anxiety is not a typical sign of right-sided heart failure. Right-sided heart failure usually presents with symptoms such as muscle tetany, syncope, and numbness. Muscle tetany can occur due to electrolyte imbalances seen in heart failure. Syncope can result from decreased cardiac output, leading to decreased perfusion to the brain. Numbness can occur due to poor circulation. While anxiety can be present in patients with various medical conditions, it is more commonly associated with respiratory acidosis or other psychological factors rather than right-sided heart failure.

Question 5 of 9

A 62-year-old female is being seen on a home visit by a nurse. The patient reports she has been taking Premarin for years. Which of the following would indicate an overdose?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Lower extremity edema can indicate an overdose of Premarin. Premarin, an estrogen hormone replacement therapy, can cause fluid retention leading to edema in the lower extremities. Sensory changes in the upper extremities, increased occurrence of fractures, and decreased peripheral blood flow are not typically associated with an overdose of Premarin.

Question 6 of 9

After experiencing a left frontal lobe CVA, a fifty-five-year-old man is being monitored by a nurse. The patient's family is not present in the room. What should the nurse observe most closely for?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to watch for changes in emotion and behavior. The frontal lobe, particularly the left side, is responsible for regulating behavior and emotions. Therefore, following a left frontal lobe CVA, monitoring for alterations in emotion and behavior is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because loss of hearing, appetite and vision deficits, and changes in facial muscle control are not directly associated with a left frontal lobe CVA.

Question 7 of 9

For which adverse effect of the block does the postpartum nurse monitor the woman after receiving a subarachnoid (spinal) block for a cesarean delivery?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Headache.' Postdural headache is a common adverse effect associated with a subarachnoid block due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage at the site of dural puncture. This headache worsens when the woman is upright and may improve when she lies flat. To manage this headache, bed rest and adequate hydration are recommended. Pruritus, vomiting, and hypertension are not typically associated with subarachnoid blocks. Pruritus, nausea, and vomiting are more commonly linked to the use of intrathecal opioids.

Question 8 of 9

The nurse manager is having a problem on the unit with one staff person having repetitive tardiness and leaving the unit with orders not initiated. Which action by the manager would be best?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse manager would be to call the staff nurse in for an interview to discuss the issues of repetitive tardiness and incomplete tasks. This approach allows the staff member to explain the situation, and together with the manager, develop a plan to address the problems. Choice A is incorrect as it immediately involves suspension without investigation or support. Choice B is not the best course of action as it does not involve direct communication with the staff member in question. Choice D, assigning a mentor to help the staff member, could be beneficial but does not directly address the immediate issues of tardiness and incomplete tasks.

Question 9 of 9

The power a healthcare professional exerts when working to accomplish goals and effect change in an agency or policy is considered what type of power?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Political power is the correct answer in this scenario. It stems from the ability to navigate systems, agencies, or policies to bring about change. Personal power is related to charisma and self-confidence in informal leadership roles. Positional power comes from holding a specific authority in a formal position. Professional power is derived from expertise in a particular area of practice. Therefore, in the context of effecting change in an agency or policy, political power is the most relevant type of power.

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