The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?

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Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.

Question 2 of 9

A nurse is preparing to auscultate for the presence of bowel sounds in a client who has just undergone surgery. The nurse places the stethoscope in which abdominal quadrant first?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the right lower quadrant. The nurse starts auscultating in this quadrant at the ileocecal valve as bowel sounds are normally always present there. Then, the nurse proceeds to listen for bowel sounds in the other quadrants. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the initial placement of the stethoscope should be in the right lower quadrant to assess bowel sounds post-surgery.

Question 3 of 9

During data collection of a client with suspected carpal tunnel syndrome, a nurse plans to perform the Phalen test. The nurse should ask the client to perform which activity?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the Phalen test, the nurse asks the client to hold the hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees. This position puts pressure on the median nerve, eliciting symptoms in carpal tunnel syndrome. Dorsiflexing or plantarflexing the foot and hyperextending the fingers are not associated with testing for carpal tunnel syndrome. Acute flexion of the wrist for 60 seconds produces no symptoms in the normal hand.

Question 4 of 9

A healthcare professional is assisting with data collection of a client with suspected cholecystitis. Which finding does the healthcare professional expect to note if cholecystitis is present?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Murphy sign. The Murphy sign is an indicator of gallbladder disease. It involves the examiner placing fingers under the liver border while the client inhales. If the gallbladder is inflamed, it descends onto the fingers, causing pain. The Homan sign is associated with pain in the calf area upon sharp dorsiflexion of the foot, indicating deep vein thrombosis. The Blumberg sign is the presence of rebound tenderness on palpation of the abdomen, indicating peritoneal irritation. The McBurney sign is indicative of appendicitis, presenting as severe pain and tenderness upon palpation at McBurney's point in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen.

Question 5 of 9

The LPN is taking care of a client with a documented allergy to Penicillin. After rounds, the LPN notices that the client has an order for Cefazolin. Which of the following actions would be the least appropriate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The least appropriate action is for the LPN to administer all ordered medications except for the Cefazolin. The LPN should always consider the client's documented allergy to Penicillin seriously. It is crucial to discuss the order with the care team before administering Cefazolin to ensure patient safety. Administering a medication that could potentially cause harm due to a documented allergy is unsafe practice. While monitoring the client after a test dose of Cefazolin is important, it should not precede clarification with the care team regarding the allergy and the appropriateness of the medication. Therefore, withholding the Cefazolin is the most appropriate action in this scenario.

Question 6 of 9

During a voice test, how should the nurse provide words for the client to repeat?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: During a voice test, the nurse should whisper words from the client's side at a distance of 1 to 2 feet from the ear being tested. This distance helps prevent transmission around the head and ensures accurate testing of one ear at a time. By standing close to the client and whispering, the nurse prevents lip-reading and compensatory actions by the client. The client with normal hearing should be able to repeat each word correctly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is wrong as the voice should be whispered, not spoken in a soft tone. Choice C is inaccurate because a distance of 10 feet is too far for precise testing. Choice D is incorrect as whispering from a distance of 20 feet would not effectively test the client's hearing.

Question 7 of 9

You are caring for a 78-year-old woman who is wondering why she was diagnosed with glaucoma. Although she has several risk factors, which of these is not one of them?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Age over 60 and Mexican-American heritage are recognized as risk factors for glaucoma. Elevated blood pressure is also a risk factor due to its potential to cause optic nerve damage. While 20/80 vision indicates poor eyesight, it is not a direct causal factor for glaucoma. Glaucoma is mainly associated with factors like age, ethnicity, and certain medical conditions, rather than a specific visual acuity measurement. Therefore, 20/80 vision is not a risk factor for glaucoma, making it the correct answer. The other choices, such as age, Mexican-American heritage, and elevated blood pressure, are established risk factors for developing glaucoma, as they are associated with an increased likelihood of the condition.

Question 8 of 9

The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.

Question 9 of 9

A healthcare professional reviewing a client's health care record notes documentation that the client has Heberden nodes of the distal interphalangeal joints. Which disorder does the healthcare professional determine that the client has?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis is characterized by hard, nontender nodules of 2 to 3 mm or larger. These osteophytes (bony overgrowths) of the distal interphalangeal joints are called Heberden nodes. In this disorder, when these nodes occur on the proximal interphalangeal joints, they are called Bouchard nodes. Heberden nodes are not associated with scoliosis, rotator cuff lesions, or carpal tunnel syndrome. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

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